Saturday, May 29, 2021

Exam MD-101 Microsoft Managing Modern Desktops Exam Guaratee Pass at certkingdom

 

Prepare for Microsoft Exam MD-101–and help demonstrate your real-world mastery of skills and knowledge required to manage modern Windows 10 desktops. Designed for Windows administrators, Exam Ref focuses on the critical thinking and decision-making acumen needed for success at the Microsoft Certified Associate level.

Focus on the expertise measured by these objectives:
Deploy and update operating systems
Manage policies and profiles
Manage and protect devices
Manage apps and data

This Microsoft Exam Ref:
Organizes its coverage by exam objectives
Features strategic, what-if scenarios to challenge you
Assumes you have experience deploying, configuring, securing, managing, and monitoring devices and client applications in an enterprise environment

About the Exam
Exam MD-101 focuses on knowledge needed to plan and implement Windows 10 with dynamic deployment or Windows Autopilot; upgrade devices to Windows 10; manage updates and device authentication; plan and implement co-management; implement conditional access and compliance policies; configure device profiles; manage user profiles; manage Windows Defender; manage Intune device enrollment and inventory; monitor devices; deploy/update applications, and implement Mobile Application Management (MAM).

About Microsoft Certification
Passing this exam and Exam MD-100 Windows 10 fulfills your requirements for the Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate certification credential, demonstrating your ability to install Windows 10 operating systems and deploy and manage modern desktops and devices in an enterprise environment.

Chapter 1: Deploy and Update Operating Systems
Chapter 2: Manage Policies and Profiles
Chapter 3: Manage and Protect Devices
Chapter 4: Manage Apps and Data

About the Practice Test
It contains 150 questions and covers the following objectives:

Deploy and Update Operating Systems
Manage Policies and Profiles
Manage and Protect Devices
Manage Apps and Data

Their quality content and innovative technology have earned the prestigious credential of Microsoft Certified Practice Test Provider.

•Online performance-based simulations give hands on work environment experience

•Questions are similar to exam questions so you test your knowledge of exam objectives

•Detailed explanations for both correct and distractor answers reinforce the material

•Study Mode covers all objectives ensuring topics are covered

•Certification Mode (timed) prepares students for exam taking conditions

•Instant, drill-down score reports tell you exactly the areas to focus on.


How to obtain the Practice Test
With your order, you will receive a product key on your Account Page. will give you access to a downloadable practice test which does not expire as well as 30-day access to the online version.

Before accessing your practice test, you will be required to create an account at  if you don’t already have one.

The downloadable practice test is licensed by for a single user and can be downloaded on up to three different devices.

QUESTION 1
You need to capture the required information for the sales department computers to meet the technical requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run first?

A. Install-Module WindowsAutoPilotIntune
B. Install-Script Get-WindowsAutoPilotInfo
C. Import-AutoPilotCSV
D. Get-WindowsAutoPilotInfo

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What should you configure to meet the technical requirements for the Azure AD-joined computers?

A. Windows Hello for Business from the Endpoint Management admin center.
B. The Accounts options in an endpoint protection profile.
C. The Password Policy settings in a Group Policy object (GPO).
D. A password policy from the Microsoft 365 admin portal.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to prepare for the deployment of the Phoenix office computers.
What should you do first?

A. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
B. Extract the serial number information of each computer to a XML file and upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
C. Extract the serial number information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
D. Generalize the computers and configure the Device settings from the Azure Active Directory admin center.

Correct Answer: A

Click here to view complete Q&A of MD-101 exam
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Tuesday, February 23, 2021

300-215 Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) Exam

 

CBRFIR Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional, Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Forensic Analysis and Incident Response
Duration: 90 minutes
Available languages: English

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to cybersecurity forensic analysis and incident response, including:

Incident response process and playbooks
Advanced incident response
Threat intelligence
Digital forensics concepts
Evidence collection and analysis
Principles of reverse engineering

Exam preparation

Official Cisco training
Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBRFIR)

Exam Description: Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps v1.0 (CBRFIR 300-215) is a 90-minute exam that is associated with the Cisco CyberOps Professional Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of forensic analysis and incident response fundamentals, techniques, and processes. The course Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Fundamentals
1.1 Analyze the components needed for a root cause analysis report
1.2 Describe the process of performing forensics analysis of infrastructure network devices
1.3 Describe antiforensic tactics, techniques, and procedures
1.4 Recognize encoding and obfuscation techniques (such as, base 64 and hex encoding)
1.5 Describe the use and characteristics of YARA rules (basics) for malware identification, classification, and documentation
1.6 Describe the role of:
1.6.a hex editors (HxD, Hiew, and Hexfiend) in DFIR investigations
1.6.b disassemblers and debuggers (such as, Ghidra, Radare, and Evans Debugger) to perform basic malware analysis
1.6.c deobfuscation tools (such as, XORBruteForces, xortool, and unpacker)
1.7 Describe the issues related to gathering evidence from virtualized environments (major cloud vendors)

20% 2.0 Forensics Techniques
2.1 Recognize the methods identified in the MITRE attack framework to perform fileless malware analysis
2.2 Determine the files needed and their location on the host
2.3 Evaluate output(s) to identify IOC on a host
2.3.a process analysis
2.3.b log analysis
2.4 Determine the type of code based on a provided snippet
2.5 Construct Python, PowerShell, and Bash scripts to parse and search logs or multiple data sources (such as, Cisco Umbrella, Sourcefire IPS, AMP for Endpoints, AMP for Network, and PX Grid)
2.6 Recognize purpose, use, and functionality of libraries and tools (such as, Volatility, Systernals, SIFT tools, and TCPdump)

30% 3.0 Incident Response Techniques
3.1 Interpret alert logs (such as, IDS/IPS and syslogs)
3.2 Determine data to correlate based on incident type (host-based and network-based activities)
3.3 Determine attack vectors or attack surface and recommend mitigation in a given scenario
3.4 Recommend actions based on post-incident analysis
3.5 Recommend mitigation techniques for evaluated alerts from firewalls, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), data analysis tools (such as, Cisco Umbrella Investigate, Cisco Stealthwatch, and Cisco SecureX), and other systems to responds to cyber incidents
3.6 Recommend a response to 0 day exploitations (vulnerability management)
3.7 Recommend a response based on intelligence artifacts
3.8 Recommend the Cisco security solution for detection and prevention, given a scenario
3.9 Interpret threat intelligence data to determine IOC and IOA (internal and external sources)
3.10 Evaluate artifacts from threat intelligence to determine the threat actor profile
3.11 Describe capabilities of Cisco security solutions related to threat intelligence (such as, Cisco Umbrella, Sourcefire IPS, AMP for Endpoints, and AMP for Network)

15% 4.0 Forensics Processes
4.1 Describe antiforensic techniques (such as, debugging, Geo location, and obfuscation)
4.2 Analyze logs from modern web applications and servers (Apache and NGINX)
4.3 Analyze network traffic associated with malicious activities using network monitoring tools (such as, NetFlow and display filtering in Wireshark)
4.4 Recommend next step(s) in the process of evaluating files based on distinguished characteristics of files in a given scenario
4.5 Interpret binaries using objdump and other CLI tools (such as, Linux, Python, and Bash)

15% 5.0 Incident Response Processes
5.1 Describe the goals of incident response
5.2 Evaluate elements required in an incident response playbook
5.3 Evaluate the relevant components from the ThreatGrid report
5.4 Recommend next step(s) in the process of evaluating files from endpoints and performing ad-hoc scans in a given scenario
5.5 Analyze threat intelligence provided in different formats (such as, STIX and TAXII)

QUESTION 1
A security team is discussing lessons learned and suggesting process changes after a security breach incident. During the incident, members of the security team failed to report the abnormal system activity due to
a high project workload. Additionally, when the incident was identified, the response took six hours due to management being unavailable to provide the approvals needed. Which two steps will prevent these issues
from occurring in the future? (Choose two.)

A. Introduce a priority rating for incident response workloads.
B. Provide phishing awareness training for the fill security team.
C. Conduct a risk audit of the incident response workflow.
D. Create an executive team delegation plan.
E. Automate security alert timeframes with escalation triggers.

Correct Answer: A,E

QUESTION 2
An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. Restore to a system recovery point.
B. Replace the faulty CPU.
C. Disconnect from the network.
D. Format the workstation drives.
E. Take an image of the workstation.

Correct Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
What is a concern for gathering forensics evidence in public cloud environments?

A. High Cost: Cloud service providers typically charge high fees for allowing cloud forensics.
B. Configuration: Implementing security zones and proper network segmentation.
C. Timeliness: Gathering forensics evidence from cloud service providers typically requires substantial time.
D. Multitenancy: Evidence gathering must avoid exposure of data from other tenants.

Correct Answer: D

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HPE6-A82 Aruba Certified ClearPass Associate Exam

Exam ID : HPE6-A82
Exam type:  Proctored
Exam duration : 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length : 60 questions
Passing score : 67%
Delivery languages : Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish

Supporting resources

Option 1
Aruba ClearPass Fundamentals, Rev. 20.11

Option 2
Aruba ClearPass Essentials, Rev. 20.11

Ideal candidateIdeal candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a minimum of six months experience in deploying modern network solutions for the enterprise.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.

Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Exam policies

This exam tests your skills on:
33% Overview and Active Directory
36% Guest and Onboard
31% Endpoint Analysis and Posture

QUESTION 1
A customer is setting up Guest access with ClearPass. They are considering using 802.1X for both the
Employee network and the Guest network.
What are two issues the customer may encounter when deploying 802.1X with the Guest network? (Choose two.)

A. ClearPass will not be able to enforce individual Access Control policies.
B. difficult to maintain in an environment with a large number of transient guest users.
C. the lack of encryption during the authentication process.
D. Guests will not be able to be uniquely identified.
E. the high level of complexity for users to join the guest network.

Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 2
An organization has configured guest self-registration with internal sponsorship.
Which options can be configured to send guest users their credentials outside of the initial login web-page? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) server in ClearPass Policy Manager administration.
B. Configure a Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) server in ClearPass Guest administration.
C. Configure a Short Message Service (SMS) Gateway in ClearPass Policy Manager administration.
D. Configure a Short Message Service (SMS) Gateway under ClearPass Guest configuration.
E. Configure the self-registration page for the guest to receive a Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) receipt.

Correct Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
When ClearPass is communicating with external context servers, which connection protocol is typically used?

A. FTP over SSH
B. REST APIs over HTTPS
C. SOAP and XML
D. YAML

Correct Answer: C

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Sunday, February 21, 2021

NS0-194 NetApp Certified Support Engineer (NCSE) Exam

 

A great way to start the NetApp Certified Support Engineer (NCSE) preparation is to begin by properly appreciating the role that syllabus and study guide play in the NetApp NS0-194 certification exam. This study guide is an instrument to get you on the same page with NetApp and understand the nature of the NetApp NCSE exam.

Our team of experts has composed this NetApp NS0-194 exam preparation guide to provide the overview about NetApp Support Engineer exam, study material, sample questions, practice exam and ways to interpret the exam objectives to help you assess your readiness for the NetApp NCSE exam by identifying prerequisite areas of knowledge. We recommend you to refer the simulation questions and practice test listed in this guide to determine what type of questions will be asked and the level of difficulty that could be tested in the NetApp NCSE certification exam.

Certification overview
NetApp Certified Support Engineer

You have proven support skills with NetApp ONTAP and have experience supporting NetApp storage solutions. You are also able to perform general troubleshooting, root cause analysis, hardware replacement, system configuration, and software and firmware upgrades for NetApp storage solutions.

NCSE logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp Certified Support Engineer (NS0-194) exam.

Prepare for your exam
NS0-194

NetApp Certified Support Engineer
Candidates for NetApp Certified Support Engineer (NCSE) certification should have at least 6 to 12 months of experience with NetApp® solutions and technology, including on-site and remote support, general troubleshooting and root cause isolation, hardware replacement, documentation, node configuration, and software and firmware upgrades.

Recommended training and resources:
ONTAP Cluster Fundamentals (WBT)
ONTAP SAN Fundamentals (WBT)
ONTAP Data Protection Fundamentals (WBT)
ONTAP NAS Fundamentals (WBT)
Introduction to NetApp Storage System Basic Components (WBT)
Introduction to Clustered Data ONTAP Architecture (WBT)
Introduction to Aggregates and FlexVols in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Networking in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to High-Availability in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Data Protection in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to NFS in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to CIFS in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to WAFL and Snapshot in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to SAN in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Storage System Monitoring and Manageability (WBT)
Introduction to Quotas in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Clustered Data ONTAP Basic Troubleshooting (WBT)
Introduction to Name Services in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Multi-Protocol Troubleshooting in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Virtualization in ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Performance in ONTAP (WBT)
ONTAP Data Protection Administration (ILT)
ONTAP Troubleshooting (ILT)
ONTAP Cluster Administration (ILT)
NetApp Cloud Data Services Fundamentals
ONTAP Data Management Fundamentals

NS0-194 Practice test
To enroll in NetApp University training, you will need a NetApp Support Site account.

Take your exam

The NS0-194 exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.

Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days after you complete your exam.

The NCSE ONTAP (NS0-194) exam includes the following topics:

ONTAP OS
Describe disk or aggregate concepts
Describe volume concepts
Describe ONTAP networking concepts
Describe how ONTAP interacts with external components
Identify ONTAP logging mechanisms
Describe supported ONTAP protocols

Troubleshooting NetApp hardware and software
Demonstrate knowledge of how to collect and analyze information
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot data access problems
Demonstrate knowledge of how to analyze performance

NetApp hardware

Identify the FRUs in a NetApp system
Demonstrate knowledge of the hardware replacement process
Describe storage hardware technology
Describe compute technology

NetApp cloud data services
Identify the components of cloud data services
Identify the components of a hybrid cloud solution

Data protection
Identify data protection concepts
Demonstrate knowledge of data protection operations

Active IQ
Describe how to use Active IQ

QUESTION 1
For security reasons, you must track the access of files of a specific folder.
In this scenario, what should you do to accomplish this task from the storage side?

A. Implement a Vscan solution.
B. Use a cron job to save the audit log.
C. Use role-based access control to track access.
D. Implement an FPolicy solution.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to provide a customer an action plan to update an ONTAP system after a security bulletin has been issued.
In this scenario, how do you accomplish this task?

A. Use the Interoperability Matrix Tool.
B. Review the ONTAP 9 product page.
C. Download the target version and do a pre-check.
D. Use Upgrade Advisor on Active IQ.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the minimum number of compute nodes required to run the NetApp Deployment Engine for NetApp HCI?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which NetApp technology enables you to perform block-based replication from NetApp Element software to
Cloud Volumes ONTAP?

A. SyncMirror
B. SnapMirror
C. Cloud Sync
D. MetroCluster

Correct Answer: B
 

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Wednesday, January 6, 2021

JN0-230 Security-Associate (JNCIA-SEC) Exam

 

Exam Details
JNCIA-SEC exam topics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led training courses, as well as the additional resources.

Juniper Networks, Inc. is an American worldwide organization that creates and markets diverse systems administration items that incorporate switches, switches, arrange the board programming, programming characterized by organizing innovation, and system security items.

The Juniper is crucial to carry straightforwardness to systems administration with inventive arrangements, administrations, and items that associate the world with no interference and security concerns.

The organization holds over a 40% portion of the center switches showcase. To help its multipurpose and wide cluster of systems administration items and advances and the clients who utilize these items the Juniper offers certification programs.

These Juniper certifications fall into various classes, for example, Associate, Specialist, Professional and Expert levels. The Juniper certification gives a substantial, solid and reasonable strategy for surveying information and mastery to chip away at the Juniper items and innovation. With this certification program, Juniper needs to build up an overall network of ensured experts who sell, administration, support and prescribe Juniper items and arrangements.

Juniper JN0-230 Exam Details:
Juniper JN0-230 Exam or Security, Associate is one of the most prominent and profession remunerating Juniper certification programs that will confirm your strong comprehension of systems administration security. This program is intended for systems administration experts, this composed exam will exam the applicant’s learning and ability of security innovations and related stage structuring, execution, setup, and investigating, and so forth.

Regardless of whether you are beginning your career with Juniper or Juniper experts and need to overhaul their insight, you should attempt to pass this Security, Associate exam with great success.

Exam code: JN0-230
Administered by Pearson VUE
Exam length: 90 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Scoring and pass/fail status is available immediately
Junos Software Release: 19.1

Exam Objectives
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam.

Identify concepts or general features of SRX Series devices
Interfaces
Hardware
Initial configuration
Traffic flow/security processing
vSRX

Identify concepts or general functionality of security zone, screen, address, or services objects
Zones
Screens
Addresses/address books

Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of security policies
Zone-based policies
Global policies
Application firewall
Unified security policies
IPS/IDP
Integrated user firewall

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of Sky ATP

General operation
Blocking mechanisms

Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of NAT
Source NAT
Destination NAT
Static NAT

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of IPsec VPNs
IPsec tunnel establishment
IPsec traffic processing
IPsec site-to-site VPNs

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of UTM
Content filtering
Web filtering
Antivirus
Antispam

Describe methods for monitoring, reporting, or logging for Juniper security solutions
J-Web
Sky Enterprise
Junos Space Security Director

Preparation
The resources listed on this section are recommended, but do not guarantee passing scores on JNCP exams. Success depends on each candidate’s motivation, experience, and dedication. Candidates may find additional resources not listed on this page helpful as well.

Introduction to Juniper Security
Industry/Product Knowledge
Juniper Networks Technical Publication (Tech Pubs)

Visit Junos Genius for information pertaining to this practice test.

Recertification
The JNCIA-SEC certification is valid for three years. To view the recertification options, go to the Recertification webpage.

QUESTION 1
Which statement is correct about Junos security zones?

A. User-defined security zones must contain at least one interface.
B. Logical interfaces are added to user-defined security zones.
C. Security policies are referenced within a user-defined security zone.
D. User-defined security zones must contain the key word “zone”.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which type of traffic is analyzed by an SRX Series device configured to use an antispam UTM policy?

A. IMAP
B. POP3
C. SMTP
D. HTTP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the definition of a zone on an SRX Series device?

A. a collection of one or more network segments sharing similar security requirements
B. an individual logical interface with a public IP address
C. a collection of one or more network segments with different security requirements
D. an individual logical interface with a private IP address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your company uses SRX Series devices to secure the edge of the network.
You are asked to protect the company from ransomware attacks.
Which solution will satisfy this requirement?

A. screens
B. unified security policies
C. AppSecure
D. Sky ATP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which method do VPNs use to prevent outside parties from viewing packets in clear text?

A. integrity
B. authentication
C. encryption
D. NAT-T

Correct Answer: C

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Tuesday, January 5, 2021

HP2-B115 Selling HP Printing and Personal Systems Hardware Exam

 

QUESTION 1
Your customer tells you that they had problems in the past with the keys on their Notebook wearing out.
Which feature should you turn into a benefit for the customer'?

A. HP DuraKeys
B. spill resistant keyboard
C. HP 3D DriveGuard
D. HP DuraFinish

Answer: A
Reference:http://blog.laptopmag.com/hp-elitebook-8740w-workstations-display-shows-an-incredible-1-billioncolors

QUESTION 2
What is the customer benefit behind HP Wireless Direct printing?

A. Making a wireless encrypted connection directly to the printer does not require access to a corporate network.
B. Store print jobs on your mobile device until the user is at the printer to ensure output can be collected immediately.
C. Printing via an Ethernet cable connection avoids potential security risks associated with wireless networks.
D. Connecting and printing via the cloud takes out the need for corporate networks.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which serviceability benefit does the HP 800 series offer?

A. a replacement device within twodays
B. remote servicing support
C. EasyAccess door
D. a two-hour, onsite visit

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A customer is looking to combine the functionality of a variety of devices in one space-saving device.
What should you recommend?

A. HP Quick Sets
B. an HP Flow Scanner
C. an HP multifunction printer
D. any HP small workteam printer

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which capability of the HP Workstation Z1 is key to its serviceability?

A. flexible placement options
B. USB 3.0 support
C. flexible configuration options
D. tool-less access

Answer: D

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Monday, January 4, 2021

CSBA - Certified Software Business Analyst CSBA Exam

 

The need for improved and more reliable information transfer calls for Software Business Analyst professionals who can effectively bridge the knowledge and language gap between the business and IT communities. Certification is recommended as a means to define the CSBA Common Body of Knowledge (CBOK) for the practice of business analyzation, and evaluate an individual’s ability to apply that knowledge to practice. Acquiring the designation of Certified Software Business Analyst (CSBA) indicates a professional level of competence in the principles and practices associated with the business analyst profession.

Examination Availability: (CSBA)
With the move to Pearson VUE Testing Centers as its partner for the administration of certification examinations worldwide there will no longer be a fixed schedule posted with dates / locations as in previous year.

Exams are offered daily at Pearson VUE Testing Centers and seats for the exams are based on availability at each site which depends on when you are planning to schedule an exam. The farther out you attempt to schedule an exam the better the chances are of finding a seat so plan accordingly.

As a general rule most Pearson VUE Testing Centers are open Monday – Friday, however in some locations that may vary. The majority of test centers are open in the morning and late afternoon and a handful have opted to stay open on the weekends.

Waiting until the last minute to try and schedule an exam is not recommended, especially if your application is about to expire as there is no guarantee you will be able to find a seat at a center before the application does expires. If you are unsure of the application expiration status email certify@softwarecertifications.org


Applicant Prerequisites: (CSBA)
To qualify for candidacy, each applicant must meet ONE of four prerequisites listed below:

A 4-year degree from accredited college-level institution & 2 years experience in the information services field
A 3-year degree from accredited college-level institution & 3 years experience in the information services field
A 2-year degree from accredited college-level institution & 4 years experience in the information services field
Six years experience in the information services field

AND

Are working, or have worked at any time within the prior 18 months, in the field within covered by the certification designation.

An applicant for certification must adhere to the Code of Ethics that outlines the ethical behaviors expected of all certified professionals by the ISCB.

Depending upon a compliance sample selected according to program criteria, the applicant may be required to provide upon request detailed education, employment, and reference documentation supporting the information entered in the Customer Portal during the application process. If selected the applicant must supply the required documentation and those who fail to provide the requested documentation may be subject to decertification.


Initial Application & Fee: (CSBA)
For those who qualify for the CSBA certification and are prepared to establish candidacy must complete an online Certification Candidacy Application in the Customer Portal and pay the application fee.

The CSBA application fee is:
$350.00 ~ All fees to be paid in US Dollars (see Payment Policy).

The application fee includes the following:
Instant access to a PDF file of the CSBA CBOK (548 pages) which is a useful tool to help prepare for the exam. After payment go to the CBOK Manuals page of Customer Portal for access.
The candidates Initial Exam which must be taken within one year from the date payment was processed or the application will expire (see Application Length).

To apply for the CSBA certification candidates must first login to their Customer Portal account. If new to the Portal then they will need to create one by clicking on the Register Now link, and then the Register as a New User tab.

IMPORTANT:
Make sure the first / last names entered when creating an account matches what is on your government issued photo ID (i.e. drivers license, passport). DO NOT abbreviate or use a nickname. If they do not match when presenting your ID at check-in you will NOT be granted entrance to the examination.

Examination Details: (CSBA)
Candidates are tested on their knowledge and practice of the skill areas defined in the CSBA CBOK. The exam itself consists of two parts:

Parts 1 – Multiple choice (100 questions each – objective / 75 minute time limit)
Parts 2 – Short answer / essay (12 questions each – subjective / 75 minute time limit).

There is a total of 112 questions and the exam will take over 2 1/2 hours to complete which includes an optional 10 minute break after part one. The passing mark is 70% which is the average score of both parts.

All exams at Pearson VUE Testing Centers are computer-based.

QUESTION 1
Interoperability is the:

A. Effort required to enhance and improve the product
B. Extent to which the system is capable of being used in multiple applications
C. Extent to which a program can be used in other applications
D. Effort required to couple and uncouple systems

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Creating a baseline of current performance is part of planning phase.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Guidelines are not enforceable.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Entity Relationship Diagrams identify:

A. Trace the movement of information through a process
B. How and when transformations occur
C. Define all of the components of a specific activity
D. Who and what are involved in a process and how they interact

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following techniques was developed by Drs. Robert Kaplan and David Norton?

A. Enterprise Dashboard
B. Business Dashboard
C. PDCA
D. Balanced Scorecard

Correct Answer: D

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