Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS) certifications enable professionals to target specific technologies and to distinguish themselves by demonstrating in-depth knowledge and expertise in their specialized technologies. more at http://www.certkingdom.com
We have prepared Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration
(1Y0-312) certification sample questions to make you aware of actual exam
properties. This sample question set provides you with information about the CCP-V
exam pattern, question formate, a difficulty level of questions and time
required to answer each question. To get familiar with Citrix Certified
Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V) exam, we suggest you try our Sample Citrix
1Y0-312 Certification Practice Exam in simulated Citrix certification exam
environment.
To test your knowledge and understanding of concepts with real-time scenario
based Citrix 1Y0-312 questions, we strongly recommend you to prepare and
practice with Premium Citrix CCP-V Certification Practice Exam. The premium
Citrix CCP-V certification practice exam helps you identify topics in which you
are well prepared and topics in which you may need further training to achieving
great score in actual Citrix Certified Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V)
exam.
QUESTION 1 Scenario: There are two domains in an organization: Domain A and Domain B. A
Citrix Engineer configured
SAML authentication for Domain A, without implementing Citrix Federated
Authentication Service (FAS).
While launching the Citrix apps, the Single Sign-on will __________.
A. work for users from Domain A and NOT for users from Domain B
B. work for users from Domain B and NOT for users from Domain A
C. work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
D. NOT work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a large environment with multiple
locations. The setup is as follows:
- The setup has a single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops site with multiple
zones such as a Primary zone and 3 Satellite zones.
-Virtual Delivery Agents (VDAs) are available for all applications in all 3
Satellite zones.
-An application 'app1' has its application database located in Satellite zone.
-As a sovereign mandate, it is desirable that this application database should
NOT be accessible from zones 2 and 3.
-The application does NOT create any database cache and cannot work if the
database is NOT reachable. -
The outage is acceptable for complying with the sovereign mandate.
Which zone preference should the engineer configure to achieve this setup?
A. Mandatory application home to Satellite zone 1
B. User home to Satellite zone 1
C. Mandatory user home to Satellite zone 1
D. Application home to Satellite zone 1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer noticed that a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
environment lost connection to the
SQL servers where the Citrix databases are running. Due to this, the Site has
become unmanaged and firsttime users CANNOT connect to their Citrix Virtual Apps
& Desktops resources.
The setup was recently upgraded from Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.11 to
Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.15 CU4.
What should the engineer do to minimize the impact of the SQL outage?
A. Enable Connection Leasing.
B. Enable IntelliCache.
C. Enable Local Host Cache.
D. Configure Citrix Database Cache.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A Citrix Engineer wants to enable the "Log Off Web Portal When Session is
Launched" feature within
Workspace Environment Management (WEM) transformer settings.
What does the engineer need to do prior to enabling this feature?
A. Set Workspace control to NOT automatically reconnect to the sessions when
users log onto StoreFront.
B. Set Workspace control settings to log off from session when users log off
from StoreFront.
C. Set Workspace control to automatically reconnect to the sessions when users
log onto StoreFront.
D. Set Workspace control settings to NOT log off a session when users log off
from StoreFront.
The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional exam is intended for
individuals who perform a DevOps engineer role with two or more years of
experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS environments.
Abilities Validated by the Certification Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance
validation
Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the
AWS platform
Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes
Recommended Knowledge and Experience Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
Experience building highly automated infrastructures
Experience administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies
Prepare for Your Exam There is no better preparation than hands-on experience. There are many
relevant AWS Training courses and other resources to assist you with acquiring
additional knowledge and skills to prepare for certification. Please review the
exam guide for information about the competencies assessed on the certification
exam.
Introduction The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional (DOP-CO1) exam validates
technical expertise in provisioning, operating, and managing distributed
application systems on the AWS platform. It is intended for individuals who
perform a DevOps Engineer role.
It validates an examinee’s ability to: Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance
validation
Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the
AWS platform
Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes
Recommended AWS Knowledge Two or more years’ experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS
environments
Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
Experience building highly automated infrastructures
Experience administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies
Exam Preparation These training courses and materials may be helpful for examination
preparation:
AWS Training (aws.amazon.com/training) DevOps Engineering on AWS - https://aws.amazon.com/training/course-descriptions/devops-engineering/
There are two types of questions on the examination: Multiple-choice: Has one correct response option and three incorrect
responses (distractors).
Multiple-response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more
options.
Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the
question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that an
examinee with incomplete knowledge or skill would likely choose. However, they
are generally plausible responses that fit in the content area defined by the
test objective.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing.
Unscored Content Your examination may include unscored items that are placed on the test to
gather statistical information. These items are not identified on the form and
do not affect your score.
Exam Results The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer Professional (DOP-C01) is a pass or fail
exam. The examination is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS
professionals who are guided by certification industry best practices and
guidelines.
Your results for the examination are reported as a score from 100-1000, with a
minimum passing score of 750. Your score shows how you performed on the
examination as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models are
used to equate scores across multiple exam forms that may have slightly
different difficulty levels.
Your score report contains a table of classifications of your performance at
each section level. This information is designed to provide general feedback
concerning your examination performance. The examination uses a compensatory
scoring model, which means that you do not need to “pass” the individual
sections, only the overall examination. Each section of the examination has a
specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than others. The table
contains general information, highlighting your strengths and weaknesses.
Exercise caution when interpreting section-level feedback.
Content Outline This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives only. It
is not a comprehensive listing of the content on this examination. The table
below lists the main content domains and their weightings.
Domain 1: SDLC Automation 22%
Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code 19%
Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging 15%
Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation 10%
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 18%
Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery 16%
1.2 Determine source control strategies and how to implement them
1.3 Apply concepts required to automate and integrate testing
1.4 Apply concepts required to build and manage artifacts securely
1.5 Determine deployment/delivery strategies (e.g., A/B, Blue/green, Canary,
Red/black) and how to implement them using AWS Services
Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code 2.1 Determine deployment services based on deployment needs
2.2 Determine application and infrastructure deployment models based on business
needs
2.3 Apply security concepts in the automation of resource provisioning
2.4 Determine how to implement lifecycle hooks on a deployment
2.5 Apply concepts required to manage systems using AWS configuration management
tools and services
Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging 3.1 Determine how to set up the aggregation, storage, and analysis of logs
and metrics
3.2 Apply concepts required to automate monitoring and event management of an
environment
3.3 Apply concepts required to audit, log, and monitor operating systems,
infrastructures, and applications
3.4 Determine how to implement tagging and other metadata strategies
Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation 4.1 Apply concepts required to enforce standards for logging, metrics,
monitoring, testing, and security
4.2 Determine how to optimize cost through automation
4.3 Apply concepts required to implement governance strategies
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 5.1 Troubleshoot issues and determine how to restore operations
5.2 Determine how to automate event management and alerting
5.3 Apply concepts required to implement automated healing
5.4 Apply concepts required to set up event-driven automated actions
Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery 6.1 Determine appropriate use of multi-AZ versus multi-region architectures
6.2 Determine how to implement high availability, scalability, and fault
tolerance
6.3 Determine the right services based on business needs (e.g., RTO/RPO, cost)
6.4 Determine how to design and automate disaster recovery strategies
6.5 Evaluate a deployment for points of failure
QUESTION: 1 You have an application which consists of EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling
group. Between a
particular time frame every day, there is an increase in traffic to your
website. Hence users are
complaining of a poor response time on the application. You have configured your
Auto Scaling group
to deploy one new EC2 instance when CPU utilization is greater than 60% for 2
consecutive periods of 5 minutes.
What is the least cost-effective way to resolve this problem?
A. Decrease the consecutive number of collection periods
B. Increase the minimum number of instances in the Auto Scaling group
C. Decrease the collection period to ten minutes
D. Decrease the threshold CPU utilization percentage at which to deploy a new
instance
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 You have decided that you need to change the instance type of your
production instances which are
running as part of an AutoScaling group. The entire architecture is deployed
using CloudFormation
Template. You currently have 4 instances in Production. You cannot have any
interruption in service
and need to ensure 2 instances are always running during the update? Which of
the options below
listed can be used for this?
A. AutoScalingRollingUpdate
B. AutoScalingScheduledAction
C. AutoScalingReplacingUpdate
D. AutoScalinglntegrationUpdate
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 You currently have the following setup in AWS
1) An Elastic Load Balancer
2) Auto Scaling Group which launches EC2 Instances
3) AMIs with your code pre-installed
You want to deploy the updates of your app to only a certain number of users.
You want to have a
cost-effective solution. You should also be able to revert back quickly. Which
of the below solutions is the most feasible one?
A. Create a second ELB, and a new Auto Scaling Group assigned a new Launch
Configuration. Create a
new AMI with the updated app. Use Route53 Weighted Round Robin records to adjust
the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs.
B. Create new AM Is with the new app. Then use the new EC2 instances in half
proportion to the older instances.
C. Redeploy with AWS Elastic Beanstalk and Elastic Beanstalk versions. Use Route
53 Weighted Round
Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs
D. Create a full second stack of instances, cut the DNS over to the new stack of
instances, and change the DNS back if a rollback is needed.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 Your application is currently running on Amazon EC2 instances behind a load
balancer. Your
management has decided to use a Blue/Green deployment strategy. How should you
implement this for each deployment?
A. Set up Amazon Route 53 health checks to fail over from any Amazon EC2
instance that is currently being deployed to.
B. Using AWS CloudFormation, create a test stack for validating the code, and
then deploy the code
to each production Amazon EC2 instance.
C. Create a new load balancer with new Amazon EC2 instances, carry out the
deployment, and then
switch DNS over to the new load balancer using Amazon Route 53 after testing.
D. Launch more Amazon EC2 instances to ensure high availability, de-register
each Amazon EC2
instance from the load balancer, upgrade it, and test it, and then register it
again with the load balancer.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 You have an application running a specific process that is critical to the
application's functionality,
and have added the health check process to your Auto Scaling Group. The
instances are showing
healthy but the application itself is not working as it should. What could be
the issue with the health check, since it is still showing the instances as
healthy.
A. You do not have the time range in the health check properly configured
B. It is not possible for a health check to monitor a process that involves the
application
C. The health check is not configured properly
D. The health check is not checking the application process
To earn the CCBA designation, candidates must: Complete a minimum of 3,750 hours of Business Analysis work experience in
the last 7 years.
Within these 3750 minimum hours required, a minimum of 900 hours must be
completed in each of 2 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas OR, a minimum of
500 hours must be completed in each of 4 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas.
Complete a minimum of 21 hours of Professional Development within the last 4
years.
Provide references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CCBA Competencies
Is CCBA for you? The CCBA certificate is for:
Individuals with an ECBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
QUESTION 1 You are currently working on creating the activity list for an initiative in
your organization. What characteristic must be assigned to each task in your
task list?
A. Procurement needs
B. Risk level
C. Unique number
D. Roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Each task in the task list should have a unique number to identify the specific
task and it should have a description of what the task is.
Answer: B is incorrect. The risk level is not associated with the task list.
Answer: D is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are not included directly in
the task list.
Answer: A is incorrect. Procurement needs are not included in the task list.
QUESTION 2 Shelly is the business analyst for her organization and she's working with
Thomas to review the business
requirements. They are discussing the identified requirements, how the
requirements will transition to the
operations, and the longevity of the solution. Thomas is concerned that the
identified requirements may not
map to the desired future state of the organization. What business analysis task
is Shelly facilitating in this scenario?
A. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition
B. Requirements quality assurance
C. Validate requirements
D. Stakeholder management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shelly and Thomas are performing the validate requirements task. This task
helps to ensure that the
requirements map to the business goals and objectives, resolve the issue, and
predict the longevity of the requirements to satisfy business needs.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is not a business analysis task called
requirements quality assurance.
Answer: A is incorrect. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition is a task to
ensure that the requirements are
clear and precise enough to create tests and inspect to know that the work has
been completed.
Answer: D is incorrect. Stakeholder management is the management of
stakeholders' issues, conflicts,
queries, concerns, threats, and perceived threats about the requirements.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following are documented approaches to the business analysis
work? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
A. Deming's Quality Circle
B. Lean
C. Six Sigma
D. Waterfall approach
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The waterfall approach, lean, and Six Sigma are the valid answer for business
analysis approaches.
Answer: A is incorrect. Deming's Quality Circle describes the quality management
approach of plan, do, check, and act. This isn't a business analysis approach.
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with the
stakeholders to prioritize the
requirements. The stakeholders are concerned about the financial impact of the
requirements should some of
them fail during the implementation. You would like to rank the risk tolerance
of the stakeholders based on
their comments about the solution and the requirements. The following are the
three categories of risk
tolerance associated with the stakeholders except for which one?
A. Neutrality
B. Mitigation
C. Risk-seeking
D. Risk-aversion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mitigation is a risk response that seeks to lower the risk's probability
and/or impact. It is not one of the three categories of risk tolerance.
QUESTION 5 Tracy is a business analyst for her organization and she's gathered and
identified the needed requirements for
the solution scope. What must Tracy do before she can begin managing the
requirements? Choose the best answer.
A. Tracy must decompose the requirements in WBS.
B. Tracy must create cost-benefits analysis of each requirement to manage the
benefits first.
C. Tracy must identify roles, responsibilities, and owners of the requirements
to fully manage the requirements.
D. Tracy must communicate the requirements to the stakeholders for their consent
and approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Requirements must be communicated before they are managed. Tracy must
communicate the requirements to
the stakeholders for their consent and approval before managing the
requirements.
Answer: A is incorrect. Before Tracy decomposes the requirements, she should
have the approval of the stakeholders.
Answer: B is incorrect. To begin managing the requirements, Tracy needs the
approval and consent of the stakeholders.
Answer: C is incorrect. This isn't a valid statement, as the best thing to do is
to gain the approval of the stakeholders first. Certkingdom
Review, Certkingdom
IIBA CCBA PDF Best IIBA
CCBACertification, IIBA
CCBA Training at certkingdom.com
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing security automated
solutions, including: Programming concepts
RESTful APIs
Data models
Protocols
Firewalls
Web
DNS
Cloud and email security
ISE
Exam Description The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735)
exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified
DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist - Security Automation
and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of
implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts,
RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email
security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions,
helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git (add, clone, push,
commit, diff, branching, and merging conflict)
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs
synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes,
conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible
and Puppet for automating security platforms
2.1 Describe the event streaming capabilities of Firepower Management Center
eStreamer API
2.2 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
2.2.a Firepower (Firepower Management Center and Firepower Device Management)
2.2.b ISE
2.2.c pxGRID
2.2.d Stealthwatch Enterprise
2.3 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Management Center API
2.4 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Threat Defense API (also known as Firepower Device Manager API)
2.5 Construct a Python script for pxGrid to retrieve information such as
endpoint device type, network policy and security telemetry
2.6 Construct API requests using Stealthwatch API
2.6.a perform configuration modifications
2.6.b generate rich reports
3.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
3.1.a Umbrella Investigate APIs
3.1.b AMP for endpoints APIs
3.1.c ThreatGRID API
3.2 Construct an Umbrella Investigate API request
3.3 Construct AMP for endpoints API requests for event, computer, and policies
3.4 Construct ThreatGRID APIs request for search, sample feeds, IoC feeds, and
threat disposition
4.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
4.1.a Umbrella reporting and enforcement APIs
4.1.b Stealthwatch cloud APIs
4.1.c Cisco Security Management Appliance APIs
4.2 Construct Stealthwatch cloud API request for reporting
4.3 Construct an Umbrella Reporting and Enforcement API request
4.4 Construct a report using Cisco Security Management Appliance API request
(email and web)
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is typically used to manage a Cisco router in-band?
(Select the best answer.)
A. a VTY port
B. a serial port
C. a console port
D. an auxiliary port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following enables the validation of both user and device
credentials in a single EAP transaction? (Select the best answer.)
A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-FAST with EAP chaining
D. EAP-MD5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following features protects the control plane by classifying
traffic into three separate control plane subinterfaces? (Select the best
answer.)
A. CoPP
B. CPPr
C. RBAC
D. uRPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is an outputspreading technique that spammers use to
manipulate reputation scores and defeat filters? (Select the best answer.)
A. phishing
B. snowshoe spam
C. waterfalling
D. listwashing
Course Description The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the most widely accepted approach to
IT service management in the world. ITIL is a best practice framework that has
been drawn from both the public and private sectors internationally. It
describes how IT resources should be organized to deliver business value,
documenting the processes, functions and roles of IT Service Management (ITSM).
The focus of a business should move from simply managing the company’s IT to
making IT truly productive by helping the business achieve its strategic goals.
ITIL certification helps organizations fulfill this goal by providing guidelines
for establishing governance standards and enhancing the alignment between
business and its IT processes.
Audience: ITIL certification is most suited for IT Managers, System Analysts,
Quality Analysts, System Administrators, Operations Managers, and Database
Administrators.
Course Objectives Understand and implement IT Service Management best practices, key concepts,
principles, and process models required for clearing the ITIL Foundation
certification exam
Gain understanding of scope, purpose, and objective of, service strategy,
service transition, service design, service operations, and Continual Service
Improvement
Apply ITIL concepts, tools and techniques to improve effectiveness and
efficiency of business for optimizing customer experience
Learn to automate standard tasks and apply lean principles to enhance efficiency
of IT Service Management processes in this ITIL 2011 foundation training
Centralize processes and teams and save costs using well defined fit-for-use and
fit-for purpose processes
ITIL Foundation course provides participants a complete structure with a set of
procedures to help them take a proactive approach in improving business
performance with the help of IT.
ITIL Foundation Definition: ITIL Foundation is a certification based on ITIL practices for IT Service
Management. The Foundation certification aims to give professionals an
understanding of the guidelines and framework.
Context: Overview ITIL Foundation is designed to give professionals a basic understanding of
the ITIL framework. It focuses on awareness and comprehension rather than being
able to apply ITIL principles. The basics of IT Service Management as a practice
are covered as is the ITIL lifecycle.
Topics Some of the topics covered in ITIL Foundation include:
IT Service Management as a practice
ITIL Service Cycle
Technology and architecture
Competence and training
The certification also covers processes, models, functions, and roles. The
learning objectives focus on knowing and understanding key terms and
definitions.
To become certified for ITIL Foundation, a professional needs to sit the ITIL
Foundation exam which consists of 40 multiple choice questions. A certificate is
awarded when the professional correctly answers 65% of the questions. The exam
can be done as a conclusion to classroom training or it can be prepared for
through self-study.
Related Certifications: There are many ways to further extend your contextual knowledge of IT
Service Management to broaden your understanding. One of these ways is to build
on your ITIL knowledge with a VeriSM™ certification. The VeriSM™ Plus module
offers professionals knowledge of new and emerging technologies. This
certification ensures that professionals have a grasp of the progessive
practices and innovative technologies that are now emerging rapidly as a
consequence of digital transformation.
QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and
tools when improving services?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed?
A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a
standard change?
A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?
A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change
quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure
they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and
implementation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication
of service requests and incidents?
A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management
2019 Exam Details
The Professional VMware vRealize Automation 7.6 Exam (2V0-31.19), which leads to
the VMware Certified Professional – Cloud Management and Automation 2020
certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled
method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 120 minutes, which includes
a five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native
English speakers. Actual exam time is 115 minutes. Exam Delivery This is a
proctored exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers, world-wide. For more
information, visit the Pearson VUE website. Certification Information For
details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for
certification attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services –
Certification website. Minimally Qualified Candidate The minimally qualified
candidate (MQC) has experience working with vRealize Automation 7.6
implementations. The candidate has some foundational knowledge of both versions
of NSX (NSX Data Center for vSphere and NSX-T) and intermediate knowledge of
vSphere. He or she is typically infrastructure personnel capable of installing
and configuring, testing, managing and troubleshooting a vRealize Automation 7.6
solution running on vSphere 6.x. The candidate possesses an understanding of
basic cloud concepts including public/private/hybrid clouds, multitenancy and
cloud security. The candidate is capable of using vRealize Automation to
automate the deployment of workloads, vRealize Business for Cloud Standard to
establish cost reporting and vRealize Orchestrator to create and manage common
workflows. The candidate has foundational knowledge of how to maintain and
update vRealize Automation thorough vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager. Exam
Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven
sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint
depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
If a section is missing from the list below, please note it is because the exam
has no testable objectives for that section. The objective numbering may be
referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further
preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.
Sections Included in the Exam
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies - There are no testable objectives
for this section
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions - There are no testable objectives for
this section
Section 3- Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this
section
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup - There are no testable
objectives for this section
Objective 4.1 - Install vRealize Automation
Objective 4.2 - Create and Manage Tenants
Objective 4.3 - Create and Manage Directories
Objective 4.4 - Create and Manage Business Groups
Objective 4.5 - Manage User and Group Role Assignments
Objective 4.6 - Integrate vRealize Business for Cloud Standard with vRealize
Automation
Objective 4.7 - Create and Manage VMware Endpoints
Objective 4.8 - Create and Manage Cloud Endpoints
Objective 4.9 - Create and Manage Fabric Groups, Reservations and Network
Profiles
Objective 4.10 - Create, Configure and Manage Active Directory Policies
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades
Objective 5.1 - Maintain and Update vRealize Automation using vRealize Lifecycle
Manager
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Troubleshoot Common vRealize Automation Installation and
Configuration Errors
Objective 6.2 - Identify the Correct Log to Troubleshoot a Given vRealize
Automation Error
Objective 6.3 - Configure the Health Check Feature on vRealize Automation
Objective 6.4 - Troubleshoot Provisioning Errors
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Create, Modify and Publish single- and multi-machine Blueprints
Based on a Given Design
Objective 7.2 - Create and Manage XaaS Blueprints with Custom Resource Mappings
Objective 7.3 - Create and Manage Custom Forms for a Blueprint
Objective 7.4 - Use Software Components in Blueprints
Objective 7.5 - Export and Import Blueprints
Objective 7.6 - Create and Manage NSX Objects in a Blueprint
Objective 7.7 - Configure a Blueprint to Deploy from OVF
Objective 7.8 - Create and Manage Entitlements
Objective 7.9 - Create and Manage Approval Policies
Objective 7.10 - Manage the vRealize Automation Catalog
Objective 7.11 - Provision Resources from a vRealize Automation Catalog
Objective 7.12 - Perform Locate and Reclamation of Resources Based on Provided
Criteria
Objective 7.13 - Manage Provisioned Workloads (Day 2 Actions)
Objective 7.14 - Perform Bulk Imports
Objective 7.15 - Create and Manage Event Broker Subscriptions
Objective 7.16 - Install and Configure Plugins and Packages in vRealize
Orchestrator
Objective 7.17 - Modify and Run Basic vRealize Orchestrator Workflows
Objective 7.18 - Configure Authentication for vRealize Orchestrator
Objective 7.19 - Maintain and Renew Certificates
QUESTION 1
A new Windows operating system machine blueprint is created and is ready to be
added to a new service catalog.
Which step must be performed for the catalog item to be visible to business
users?
A. Entitle the blueprint with all appropriate actions.
B. Publish the blueprint.
C. Entitle a business user to add the blueprint to the catalog.
D. Add the catalog item to the business group’s reservation.
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A vRealize Orchestrator administrator is tasked with creating a workflow
that processes sensitive information
that is subject to auditing. All workflow messages must be stored in the
vRealize Orchestrator database.
How can the administrator ensure that all log messages generated by the workflow
are stored in the database?
A. Configure a DEBUG level for the vRealize Orchestrator server.
B. Use System.log() when printing out messages.
C. Configure SQL plugin to write to the database directly.
D. Use Server.log() when printing out messages.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A system administrator created a tenant with URL name “fin” for the finance
team. The fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the appliance is
vra.rainpole.local.
What is the correct URL to log in to the finance tenant?
A. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/fin
B. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/finance
C. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/fin
D. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/finance
Answer: D
QUESTION 4 What can be used in custom forms to prevent a user from entering too large a
value (such as too much memory for a virtual machine)?
A. Constraints for a field
B. Regular expression for a field
C. Quotas for a field
D. Limitations for a field
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 An administrator configures a pre-approval event subscription to run
vRealize Orchestrator workflow. The
workflow does not run when a machine that matches the defined criteria is
requested in the service catalog.
What can the administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. Verify that approvers have executed the approve option.
B. Verify that the workflow subscription is published.
C. Verify that approvers belong to specific users and groups.
D. Verify that the approval policy is associated with the correct resource
action.
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – HR Exam Specification
defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test
framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation Specialist – HR
certified.
Exam Purpose The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam certifies that a
successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the
configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow Human Resources
suite of applications.
Exam Audience The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam is available to ServiceNow
customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow
Certified Implementer for the ServiceNow HR application.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path: Human Resources Service Delivery (HRSD)
Implementer
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam.
Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain
source material for the exam.
• Human Resources (HR) Fundamentals
• Human Resources (HR) Implementation - Upon completion, the candidate will be
issued a nontransferable voucher code to register for the Certified
Implementation Specialist – HR exam
Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow also recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
o Micro-certification – ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
• Working with Restricted Caller Access Records for Human Resources
Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional
resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• General familiarity with general industry terminology, acronyms, and
initialisms
• Practical knowledge about Human Resources processes and some knowledge of IT
Service Request workflows is also helpful
• Three to six months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment
projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least one ServiceNow HR deployment project
Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and
activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills
measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each
domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of
exam content.
Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Describe and use the ServiceNow HR System
Architecture 37%
Plugins
HR Table Structure
Application Scoping
2 Configure and Implement ServiceNow Core HR Applications and Employee Service
Center 40%
Users, Groups, Skills, and Roles
Assignment Rules
HR Services, HR Catalog Items, and Record Producers
HR Service Portal Branding
Describe and Use Platform, Role, and Contextual Security
16% Describe how Platform, Role, and Contextual Security are Used in ServiceNow
Understand how the Delegated Developer role works
Understand how to Configure Security Options to Protect HR Data
Total
100%
Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website
using a voucher obtained by completing the Human Resources (HR) Implementation
training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the prerequisite training
path is nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the
Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately 45 questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately
calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not
provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again
up to three more times for a cost of $75.
QUESTION 1
An HR Admin without the System Admin role can do what? (Choose three.)
A. Grant roles to users or groups
B. Modify the HR Administration > Properties
C. Reset user passwords
D. Create HR Criteria
E. Configure business rules
F. Add users to groups
Correct Answer: A,C,F
QUESTION 2 After the HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin] role has been removed from the Admin
role, how may a user with only the Admin role add members to HR groups?
A. The Admin must elevate their role to security_admin to add members to HR
groups.
B. The Admin follows the same process as with any group membership change.
C. The Admin can no longer add members to HR groups.
D. The Admin must impersonate an HR Admin to add members to HR groups.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 In the Create Bulk Cases module, which Filter by options are available in
the dropdown? (Choose four.)
A. Document Template
B. Upload File
C. HR Service Template
D. User Criteria
E. HR Template
F. HR Profiles
G. HR Criteria
