Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS) certifications enable professionals to target specific technologies and to distinguish themselves by demonstrating in-depth knowledge and expertise in their specialized technologies. more at http://www.certkingdom.com
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – HR Exam Specification
defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test
framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation Specialist – HR
certified.
Exam Purpose The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam certifies that a
successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the
configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow Human Resources
suite of applications.
Exam Audience The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam is available to ServiceNow
customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow
Certified Implementer for the ServiceNow HR application.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path: Human Resources Service Delivery (HRSD)
Implementer
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam.
Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain
source material for the exam.
• Human Resources (HR) Fundamentals
• Human Resources (HR) Implementation - Upon completion, the candidate will be
issued a nontransferable voucher code to register for the Certified
Implementation Specialist – HR exam
Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow also recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
o Micro-certification – ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
• Working with Restricted Caller Access Records for Human Resources
Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional
resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• General familiarity with general industry terminology, acronyms, and
initialisms
• Practical knowledge about Human Resources processes and some knowledge of IT
Service Request workflows is also helpful
• Three to six months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment
projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least one ServiceNow HR deployment project
Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and
activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills
measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each
domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of
exam content.
Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Describe and use the ServiceNow HR System
Architecture 37%
Plugins
HR Table Structure
Application Scoping
2 Configure and Implement ServiceNow Core HR Applications and Employee Service
Center 40%
Users, Groups, Skills, and Roles
Assignment Rules
HR Services, HR Catalog Items, and Record Producers
HR Service Portal Branding
Describe and Use Platform, Role, and Contextual Security
16% Describe how Platform, Role, and Contextual Security are Used in ServiceNow
Understand how the Delegated Developer role works
Understand how to Configure Security Options to Protect HR Data
Total
100%
Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website
using a voucher obtained by completing the Human Resources (HR) Implementation
training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the prerequisite training
path is nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the
Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately 45 questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately
calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not
provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again
up to three more times for a cost of $75.
QUESTION 1
An HR Admin without the System Admin role can do what? (Choose three.)
A. Grant roles to users or groups
B. Modify the HR Administration > Properties
C. Reset user passwords
D. Create HR Criteria
E. Configure business rules
F. Add users to groups
Correct Answer: A,C,F
QUESTION 2 After the HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin] role has been removed from the Admin
role, how may a user with only the Admin role add members to HR groups?
A. The Admin must elevate their role to security_admin to add members to HR
groups.
B. The Admin follows the same process as with any group membership change.
C. The Admin can no longer add members to HR groups.
D. The Admin must impersonate an HR Admin to add members to HR groups.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 In the Create Bulk Cases module, which Filter by options are available in
the dropdown? (Choose four.)
A. Document Template
B. Upload File
C. HR Service Template
D. User Criteria
E. HR Template
F. HR Profiles
G. HR Criteria
Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to understand Microsoft Dynamics 365; artificial
intelligence (AI); mixed reality (MR); the Power Platform; cloud concepts; cloud
security; role-based security in Dynamics 365; Common Data Service; data
management framework; Dynamics 365 reporting; Dynamics 365 integrations; and
cloud deployment.
This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365. Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365
capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working
experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also
have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing
business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.
Audience Profile This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities
and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working
experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also
have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing
business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%) Describe integration capabilities
• integration across Dynamics 365 apps
• integration across Microsoft products
• integration with third-party apps
• custom integrations in Dynamics 365
Describe Dynamics 365 cloud security • encryption
• authentication
• data ownership
• data center access
• SSO
• Data loss protection (DLP)
• industry standard certifications (GDPR, etc)
Understand the benefits of role based security • app role-based security
• leveraging security roles
• streamlined user experience
• out-of-the-box security roles
Identify the business value of the Microsoft cloud • Azure features used by Dynamics 365
• PaaS
• Life Cycle Services (LCS)
Understand the use of Power Platform in Dynamics 365 • Power Apps
• Power BI
• Power Automate
• AI Builder
• Common Data Service
Understand the benefits of the Common Data Service • analytics
• extensibility
• interoperability
• consistency
Identify Dynamics 365 reporting capabilities • built in reporting
• role-based reporting
• extensible reporting
Understand AI and Mixed Reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%) Leverage AI for data insights
• fraud protection
• virtual agents
• sales insights
• customer insights
• relationship insights
• customer service insights
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales
• dynamics 365 sales automation
• pipeline management
• contact management
• customer requests and follow up
• LinkedIn Sales Navigator
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Marketing • lead generation and qualifications
• customer journey
• surveys
• landing pages
• segmentation
• event management
• dynamics 365 for marketing
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Field Service • Resource Scheduling Optimization (RSO)
• Connected Field Service
• service resource scheduling
• proactive customer service
• Field Service Mobile
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Service • account management
• omni channel service
• case life cycle
• knowledge articles
Understand Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance • General Ledger
• Accounts Payable
• Accounts Receivable
• project accounting
• budgeting
• global attributes
• end to end business processes
• real time cash flow visibility
• enterprise asset management
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Human Resources • employee self-service
• personnel management
• benefits management
• employee development
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Business Central • finance
• supply chain
• project management
• sales and service
• budgeting
• when to use Business Central vs other Dynamics 365 products
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management • project accounting
• modernize operations
• procurement and sourcing
• manufacturing
• warehouse management
• master planning
• product information
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Commerce • retail capability
• Channel Management
• Point of Sale (POS)
• mobile commerce
QUESTION 1 You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the
cloud.
You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?
A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created
in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts
Correct Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION 3 A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a
customized app that allows
sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops,
tablets, and mobile
devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?
Published: January 31, 2018
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Azure
Credit toward certification: MCSA, MCSE
Skills measured This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed
below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on
the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on
that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of
question types on Microsoft exams.
Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the
topics described in the bulleted text.
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam?
Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and
incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability
of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to
your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft
Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an
exam challenge.
If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or
about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact
your Regional Service Center.
On January 14, 2020, this exam was updated. To learn more about these changes
and how they affect the skills measured, please download and review the exam
70-537 change document.
Deploying and Integrating an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%) Build test environments by using the Azure Stack Hub Development Kit (ASDK).
This objective may include but is not limited to: use PowerShell commands;
install updated ASDK; troubleshoot failed installs; post-deployment registration
Configure identity and PKI for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: integrate Azure Stack Hub with
AD FS, create custom RBAC roles for Azure Stack registration, validate Azure
identity, validate AD FS integaration, validate graph integration, generate PKI
certificates, validate PKI certificates, remediate PKI certificates
Configure DNS for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure external DNS name
resolution from within Azure Stack Hub; configure Azure Stack Hub DNS names from
outside Azure Stack Hub
Configure connectivity for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: manage firewall ports needed
at the edge; configure connectivity to the data center; install and renew
certificates for public endpoints, connect to Azure by using ExpressRoute
Connect to and perform API-based administration on Azure Stack Hub.
This objective may include but is not limited to: connect to the stack by using
PowerShell; configure client certificates; configure firewall to support remote
administration; establish RBAC roles for the Azure Stack Hub fabric; create
subscriptions for end users
Configuring PaaS and IaaS for an Azure Stack Hub Environment (25-30%)
Configure and administer the App Service resource provider.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure system; configure
source control; configure worker tiers; configure subscription quotas; scale
worker tiers and App Service infrastructure roles; add custom software;
configure Azure Stack Hub networking security
Configure and administer database resource providers.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure and administer the
SQL adapter; configure and administer the MySQL adapter; set up SKUs; set up
additional hosting capacity
Configure and administer IaaS services.
This objective may include but is not limited to: implement virtual machine
images; prepare Linux and Windows images; prepare a custom image; upload an
image
Providing Services to and Enabling DevOps for Azure Stack Hub Users (25-30%) Create and manage quotas, plans, and offers.
This objective may include but is not limited to: create quotas; configure
plans; configure offers; configure delegated offers; create add-on plans
Manage tenants and users.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure multi-tenancy in
Azure Stack; remove tenants; manage authentication and authorization; establish
RBAC roles for the user space
Manage the Azure Marketplace.
This objective may include but is not limited to: enable Azure Marketplace on
Azure Stack Hub; plan new packages; create and publish new packages; download
Azure Marketplace items
Enable DevOps for users.
This objective may include but is not limited to: enable version control for
users; enable CLI for users; manage ARM templates; deploy ARM templates; debug
ARM templates; use Azure DevOps to connect to Azure Stack Hub; use continuous
integration and continuous deployment to automate a pipeline that targets Azure
Stack Hub, configure app identity to access resources using Azure AD and AD FS
service principals
Maintaining and Monitoring an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%)
Plan and implement a backup-recovery and a disaster-recovery solution.
This objective may include but is not limited to: back up Azure Stack Hub
infrastructure services; perform cloud recovery of Azure Stack Hub, replicate
and fail over Azure Stack Hub VMs to Azure; back up and restore PaaS resource
data; back up and restore backup and restore of user Azure Stack Hub VM-OS,
disks, volumes, and apps
Manage and monitor capacity, performance, updates, and alerts.
This objective may include but is not limited to: manage storage; monitor
available storage; integrate existing monitoring services; manage public IP
address ranges; monitor infrastructure component health; monitor Azure Stack Hub
memory, public IP addresses, and storage user consumption; apply updates; update
system firmware; review and react to alerts; configure external auditing and
syslog forwarding; replace hardware
Manage usage reporting and log collection.
This objective may include but is not limited to: provide access to the usage
database; test usage by using the ASDK; collect the usage data by using the
Provider Resource Usage API and the Tenant Resource Usage API; investigate the
usage time versus the reported time
Instructor-led training Course 20537: Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure
Stack
Online training INF240x: Configuring and Operating Microsoft Azure Stack
Self-paced training Azure Stack Documentation
Azure Stack Development Kit (free!)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are Azure administrators and Azure Stack Hub operators
who use Azure Stack Hub to provide cloud services to their end users or
customers from within their own data center.
Candidates for this exam should have significant experience managing and
operating Azure Stack Hub environments. Candidates should have a strong
understanding of Azure as well as some knowledge of virtualization, networking,
and identity management. Candidates should also understand how Azure Stack Hub
enables DevOps processes and the hybrid development model.
Candidates for this exam are expected to demonstrate the ability to plan,
deploy, package, update, and maintain the Azure Stack Hub infrastructure.
Candidates must also demonstrate the ability to offer hybrid cloud resources and
requested services, and to manage infrastructure as a service (IaaS) and
platform as a service (PaaS).
QUESTION 1 You have an Azure Stack integrated system in the perimeter network.
You need to ensure that users in the Internet can access Azure Stack Storage
blobs.
Which TCP ports should you open on the firewall?
A. 20 and 21
B. 137 only
C. 80 and 443
D. 445 and 5445
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
You establish a PowerShell session to a privileged endpoint, and you run several
commands.
You need to ensure that logs of the session activity are exported to a file
share.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Exit
B. Clear-Host
C. Out-Default
D. Close-PrivilegedEndpoint
E. Exit-PSSession
Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system that uses an external domain
name of west.fabrikam.com
Currently, tenant users access the system internally.
You need to create a SSL certificate for the publication of externally
accessible endpoints. The solution must
ensure that tenant users can upload VHD files to Azure Stack remotely.
Which two names should you include in the certificate? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. adminmanagement.west.fabrikam.com
B. *.west.fabrikam.com
C. *.blob.west.fabrikam.com
D. adminportal.west.fabrikam.com
E. *.trafficmanager.west.fabrikam.com
Answer: B,C
QUESTION 4 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system.
You implement federation between adatum.com and Azure Stack.
You need to ensure that a user named admin01@adatum.com can manage Azure Stack
from the Azure Stack administrator portal.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-ServiceAdminOwner
B. Set-AzsUserSubscription
C. New-CloudAdminUser
D. Set-CloudAdminPassword
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
What are three possible types of records that you can create in Azure Stack DNS?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
ISACA’s Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)
certification indicates expertise in identifying and managing enterprise IT risk
and implementing and maintaining information systems controls. Gain instant
recognition and credibility with CRISC and boost your career!
THE CRISC DIFFERENCE Whether you are seeking a new career opportunity or striving to grow within
your current organization, a CRISC certification proves your expertise in these
work-related domains
PREPARE FOR THE EXAM Set yourself up to succeed on exam day. Whether you prefer to prep on your
own time or want the additional guidance and interaction that comes with live
instruction, we have the right CRISC test prep solutions for you.
Course Description The CRISC Online Review Course is an online preparation course that prepares
learners to pass the CRISC certification exam using proven instructional design
techniques and interactive activities.The course covers all four of the CRISC
domains, and each section corresponds directly to the CRISC job practice.
The course incorporates video, interactive eLearning modules, downloadable,
interactive workbooks, downloadable job aids, case study activities, and pre-and
post-course assessments. Learners will be able to navigate the course at their
own pace, following a recommended structure, or target preferred job practice
areas. Learners may also start and stop the course based on their study
schedule, picking up exactly where they left off the next time they access the
course.
Learning Objectives:
At the completion of this course you will be able to: Identify the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives
and alignment with the Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) strategy.
Analyze and evaluate IT risk to determine the likelihood and impact on business
objectives to enable risk-based decision making.
Determine risk response options and evaluate their efficiency and effectiveness
to manage risk in alignment with business objectives.
Continuously monitor and report on IT risk and controls to relevant stakeholders
to ensure the continued efficiency and effectiveness of the IT risk management
strategy and its alignment with business objectives.
Included Materials: Video
Interactive Content
Downloadable workbooks and job aids
Case study activities
Practice exam
Ideal For: Professionals preparing to become CRISC certified
Risk practitioners
Students or recent graduates
Cancellation/Refund Policy
All purchases of online learning courses are final. Access to the online
learning courses and materials is immediate upon purchasing; therefore no
refunds or exchanges will be provided. Prices subject to change without notice.
Enterprise Training Online review courses are also available for purchase through our enterprise
sales team for larger organizations. Visit the Enterprise Training page and
reach out to an associate for more information.
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk
indicators (KRIs)?
A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that
KRIs continue to effectively
capture these changes.
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external
environments are constantly
changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they
can capture the changes in
threat and vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI
reporting, but is not the
reason for maintenance of KRIs.
B: While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect
to their sensitivity, the most
important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to
effectively capture the changes in
threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that
because of change of threat and
vulnerability overtime.
C: Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for
KRI maintenance.
QUESTION 2 You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the
final compilation process. The
project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few
administrative closure
activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have
wrecked the project but you and your
project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the
project costs or project
completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have
identified during the project's
monitoring and controlling process?
A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization's lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project's risk register
already.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the
organization's lessons learned
database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if
relevant.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk
response plan during the project and
they'll be entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
B: The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after
completing the project, they should be
entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
D: If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project's
risk register then it may not be
shared with project managers working on some other project.
QUESTION 3 You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event
on your project that could save
$100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST
describes this risk event?
A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the
threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential
savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an
opportunity, and the appropriate
strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is
one of the strategies to negate risks
or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with
positive impacts where the
organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a
risk event provides opportunities for
positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project
to reduce the time to completion
is an example of exploit response.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk
events, and not in positive risk
events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save
$100,000, hence it is a positive risk
event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.
B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk;
loss is accepted if it occurs. But as
this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.
QUESTION 4 You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project
will last for 18 months and will cost
$750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and
stakeholders to identify risks
within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why
you have scheduled so
many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just
initially during the project planning.
What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?
A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk
identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events
which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification
participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks
events during project execution.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk identification is an iterative process because new risks may evolve or
become known as the project progresses through its life cycle.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Stakeholders are encouraged to participate in the risk identification
process, but this is not the best choice.
B: Risk identification focuses on discovering new risk events, not the events
which did not happen.
D: The primary reason for iterations of risk identification is to identify new
risk events.
QUESTION 5 You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize
several risks. A risk has a rating for
occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk
Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
Identify potential failure effects
Identify potential causes
Establish links between each identified potential cause
Identify potential failure modes
Assess severity, occurrence and detection
Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to
score these assessments.
Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by
occurrence and detection.
RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection
Hence,
RPN = 4 * 5 * 6
= 120
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence, and
detection.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs
are highly relevant and possess
a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. KRIs help in
avoiding excessively large number of
risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have.
As KRIs are the indicators of risk, hence its most important function is to
effectively give an early warning
signal that a high risk is emerging to enable management to take proactive
action before the risk actually
becomes a loss.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is one of the important functions of KRIs which can help management to
improve but is not as
important as giving early warning.
C: KRIs provide an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
through metric setting, but this is
not as important as giving early warning.
D: This is not as important as giving early warning. Click here to
view complete Q&A of Isaca CRISC exam
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either the 2-day Professional Scrum Foundations or Professional Scrum Master
course is highly recommended.
Prepare for the Assessment The assessment is difficult; preparation is required to achieve a passing
score. Reading the Scrum Guide and taking the Open Assessments alone isn't
typically enough preparation and we recommend reviewing the content below:
The assessment covers topics from multiple Focus Areas defined by the
Professional Scrum Competencies.
Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum
Guide and how you would apply Scrum within a Scrum Team.
The PSM I Suggested Reading lists the Focus Areas from which questions may be
selected during the assessment.
The Scrum Master Learning Path contains many additional resources to help you
prepare to take the PSM I Assessment.
Search the list of existing Professional Scrum certification holders here or see
a breakdown on how many people hold certifications.
To protect the integrity of the certification process, Scrum.org does not share
information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or
incorrectly. Learn More
The cost of PSM I is $150 USD. Assessment passwords are valid for one attempt,
do not expire and remain valid until used. See below for more details.
Details Fee: $150 USD per attempt
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 60 minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Difficulty: Intermediate
Language: English only
Scrum Resources
Required course: None
Recommended courses: Professional Scrum Foundations or Professional Scrum Master
PSM Subject Areas
Practice Assessment: Scrum Open
Ways to Learn More to help you prepare
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only
When you purchase a password, it is set up in our system and emailed to you
within one business day. All Students in a PSM or PSF course are emailed a
password upon completion of the course (typically within 3-5 business days).**
Certification If you pass the PSM I assessment you will receive the industry-recognized "PSM
I" certification, along with a PSM I logo that you can use to identify your
achievement. In addition, your name will be posted publicly for colleagues,
managers, and potential employers to see.
Unlike other Scrum certifications that require only class attendance, Scrum.org
certification requires a minimum score on an online assessment. Attending a
course is neither required nor sufficient for certification. This gives
Scrum.org certification teeth and ensures that it has true value in the
marketplace.
Search the list of Professional Scrum Certificate Holders
QUESTION 1
When many Scrum Teams are working on the same product, should all of their
increments be integrated every Sprint?
A. Yes, but only for Scrum Teams whose work has dependencies.
B. Yes, otherwise the Product Owners (and stakeholders) may not be able to
accurately inspect what is done.
C. No, each Scrum Team stands alone.
D. No, that is far too hard and must be done in a hardening Sprint.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When can a Development Team cancel a Sprint?
A. It can’t. Only Product Owners can cancel Sprints.
B. When functional expectations are not well understood.
C. When the Product Owner is absent too often.
D. When the selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint become unachievable.
E. When a technical dependency cannot be resolved.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which output from Sprint Planning provides the Development Team with a
target and overarching direction for the Sprint?
A. The Sprint Backlog.
B. The Sprint Goal
C. The release plan.
D. Sprint Review minutes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 How should a Development Team deal with non-functional requirements?
A. Ensure every Increment meets them.
B. Make sure the release department understands these requirements, but it is
not the Development Team’s responsibility.
C. Handle them during the Integration Sprint preceding the Release Sprint.
D. Assign them to the lead developers on the team.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
When is a Sprint over?
A. When the Product Owner says it is done.
B. When all Product Backlog items meet their definition of “Done”.
C. When all the tasks are completed.
D. When the time-box expires.
Capable Project Administrators are essential to the optimal functioning of
Jira in large organizations. Certified Jira Project Administrators are the power users who know how to
configure projects and boards, customize workflows and manage project
permissions in their organization's Jira Server or Data Center instance. They
live in Jira day-to-day, and can help scale their instance to meet the demand of
their business, so their Jira Administrator and teams can get more work done.
Six months' exposure to Jira is recommended before taking the training course.
Exam Number ACP-600
LANGUAGES English, Japanese, Korean
TIME WINDOW You must complete the exam within 60 days of your purchase of the
course.
Location Proctored online at your own location
Products Jira Software Server Enterprise Releases
Registration Availability
Price USD $100 for course + exam voucher bundle
Exam Time 180 minutes
Passing Score 63% (effective 15 March 2019)
Questions Up to 75
Important Concepts to Master Which configurations (schemes, versions, components, etc) are shared versus
unique
when new projects are (1) created from template or (2) with a shared
configuration?
Who can change a Project Key, and what are the effects on issues in the project?
Which project details can be added and changed by Project Administrators?
What are the uses of Project Category in Jira?
What features are available for Jira Software projects, and to users who have
Jira
Software application access (as compared to just Jira Core)?
What is the importance of the Browse Projects permission?
How do combinations of permissions work together to enable specific actions? For
example:
• What permissions are needed to Move Issues?
• What permissions are needed to Edit or Delete All Worklogs?
• What permissions are needed to rank issues in the backlog?
• What permissions are needed to assign issues to yourself?
• What requirements must a user meet in order to use a particular workflow
transition?
What is an Issue Collector and what permissions are needed to configure it?
Where are all the places you need to look to fully identify what permissions a
particular user has?
What are the use cases where it is best to use Project Roles rather than Groups?
Which business requirements necessitate the use of separate issue types in a
project (e.g. different screens, workflows, etc.)?
What is the relationship between screens, screen schemes and issue type screen
schemes?
• How are they related to field configurations?
• How do you determine the maximum number of screens possibly used in a
project (for issue operations and workflow transitions)?
• Who can make changes to screens, screen schemes and issue type screen schemes?
What are all the various factors that influence whether a field is visible on a
screen?
When is it best to use components, and when is it best to use a custom field
instead?
What are the features, uses, limitations/restrictions of workflow changes,
especially the Simplified Workflow?
1. Who can change the Simplified Workflow? What are the limitations on changes
to the Simplified Workflow?
2. What changes can be performed on statuses and transitions?
3. What things may need to be updated as a result of workflow changes of any
kind?
4. What workflow changes can be done through the board by board administrators?
5. What types of workflow changes can Project Administrators make if Extended
Project Administration is enabled?
How do these settings affect notifications?
• AutoWatch setting
• My Changes setting
• Share This Issue
• @Mentions
• Filter Subscriptions
What are the configuration options for all the out-of-box reports and gadgets
(except Agile reports and gadgets)? What is their behavior and expected results?
How are valid JQL queries written? What operators and arguments are valid for
various JQL functions (e.g. membersOf(), StartOfDay(), WAS, CHANGED, etc.)
Which export options are available are available from the Issue Navigator?
Exam Topics Roles, Permissions and Issue Level Security
ô€€€ Given business requirements, determine appropriate permissions for project
team members
ô€€€ Determine if and how issue-level security should be configured in a project
ô€€€ Manage project role membership
ô€€€ Troubleshoot issues with roles, permissions and issue security and escalate
if required Project Configuration
ô€€€ Describe how versions are managed in Jira
ô€€€ Given requirements, determine how to create and configure project components
and auto assignment
ô€€€ Describe how to manage general project configurations (e.g., project details,
project sidebar)
ô€€€ Describe the use of schemes and the implications of using project templates
Issue Types, Workflows, Fields, Screens and Notifications
ô€€€ Given business requirements, determine the appropriate issue types
ô€€€ Given business requirements, determine the appropriate Jira workflow
configuration
ô€€€ Given a scenario, determine the appropriate method to edit project workflows
to meet business needs
ô€€€ Given business requirements, determine appropriate screen configuration
ô€€€ Given business requirements, determine appropriate field configuration
ô€€€ Given business requirements, determine if and how to add fields to project
screens
ô€€€ Given business requirements, recommend the appropriate project notifications
ô€€€ Troubleshoot issues with notifications, workflows, fields and screens
Reports, Dashboards and JQL
ô€€€ Determine an appropriate dashboard configuration
ô€€€ Identify the appropriate project reports
ô€€€ Translate business requirements into appropriate JQL queries Global
Configuration
ô€€€ Given a scenario, select changes to issue links, time tracking, priorities
and resolutions
QUESTION 1 For the DEV project, Max has these requirements relating to time logging:
I need to be able to edit time logs.
I need to be able to delete time logs.
Which three project permissions does Max need in order to meet these
requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Schedule Issues
B. Edit All Worklogs
C. Move Issues
D. Delete All Worklogs
E. Work On Issues
F. Edit All Comments
Correct Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION 2 Indicate which two use cases require the use of issue-level security within
a project. (Choose two.)
A. Only managers should be able to see Critical issues in the project.
B. Only managers should be able to choose who sees certain issues in the
project.
C. Only managers should be able to see the project.
D. Only managers should be able to set the Due Date on issues in the project.
E. Only managers should be able to Close issues in the project.
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 3 Which two can project administrators associate with project roles? (Choose
two.)
A. Security levels
B. Application access
C. Global permissions
D. Groups
E. Individual users
F. Project permissions
Correct Answer: A,D
QUESTION 4 Martina is unable to perform the following actions in the App project:
Create and manage versions
Create and manage components
Rank issues in the backlog
The App project does not use a shared permission scheme.
Which two permissions will allow her to perform those actions? (Choose two.)
A. Transition Issues
B. Move Issues
C. Administer Projects
D. Bulk Change
E. Schedule Issues
Correct Answer: C,E
QUESTION 5 All projects use a shared permission scheme.
The Browse Projects permission needs to be updated. Project administrators need
to be able to manage access to their own projects.
What entry should be added to the Browse Projects permission?
A. Group
B. Project lead
C. Project Role
D. Single user
E. Application access
Regression and Modeling Designed for SAS professionals who use SAS/STAT® software to conduct and
interpret complex statistical data analysis
Successful candidates should have experience in:
Analysis of variance.
Linear and logistic regression.
Preparing inputs for predictive models.
Measuring model performance.
ANOVA - 10% Verify the assumptions of ANOVA
Analyze differences between population means using the GLM and TTEST procedures
Perform ANOVA post hoc test to evaluate treatment effect
Detect and analyze interactions between factors
Linear Regression - 20% Fit a multiple linear regression model using the REG and GLM procedures
Analyze the output of the REG, PLM, and GLM procedures for multiple linear
regression models
Use the REG or GLMSELECT procedure to perform model selection
Assess the validity of a given regression model through the use of diagnostic
and residual analysis
Logistic Regression - 25% Perform logistic regression with the LOGISTIC procedure
Optimize model performance through input selection
Interpret the output of the LOGISTIC procedure
Score new data sets using the LOGISTIC and PLM procedures
Prepare Inputs for Predictive Model Performance - 20% Identify the potential challenges when preparing input data for a model
Use the DATA step to manipulate data with loops, arrays, conditional statements
and functions
Improve the predictive power of categorical inputs
Screen variables for irrelevance and non-linear association using the CORR
procedure
Screen variables for non-linearity using empirical logit plots
Measure Model Performance - 25% Apply the principles of honest assessment to model performance measurement
Assess classifier performance using the confusion matrix
Model selection and validation using training and validation data
Create and interpret graphs (ROC, lift, and gains charts) for model comparison
and selection
Establish effective decision cut-off values for scoring
ANOVA - 10% Verify the assumptions of ANOVA
Explain the central limit theorem and when it must be applied
Examine the distribution of continuous variables (histogram, box-whisker, Q-Q
plots)
Describe the effect of skewness on the normal distribution
Define H0, H1, Type I/II error, statistical power, p-value
Describe the effect of sample size on p-value and power
Interpret the results of hypothesis testing
Interpret histograms and normal probability charts
Draw conclusions about your data from histogram, box-whisker, and Q-Q plots
Identify the kinds of problems may be present in the data: (biased sample,
outliers, extreme values)
For a given experiment, verify that the observations are independent
For a given experiment, verify the errors are normally distributed
Use the UNIVARIATE procedure to examine residuals
For a given experiment, verify all groups have equal response variance
Use the HOVTEST option of MEANS statement in PROC GLM to asses response
variance
Analyze differences between population means using the GLM and TTEST
procedures Use the GLM Procedure to perform ANOVA
o CLASS statement
o MODEL statement
o MEANS statement
o OUTPUT statement
Evaluate the null hypothesis using the output of the GLM procedure
Interpret the statistical output of the GLM procedure (variance derived from
MSE, F value, p-value R**2, Levene's test)
Interpret the graphical output of the GLM procedure
Use the TTEST Procedure to compare means
Perform ANOVA post hoc test to evaluate treatment effect Use the LSMEANS statement in the GLM or PLM procedure to perform pairwise
comparisons
Use PDIFF option of LSMEANS statement
Use ADJUST option of the LSMEANS statement (TUKEY and DUNNETT)
Interpret diffograms to evaluate pairwise comparisons
Interpret control plots to evaluate pairwise comparisons
Compare/Contrast use of pairwise T-Tests, Tukey and Dunnett comparison methods
Detect and analyze interactions between factors Use the GLM procedure to produce reports that will help determine the
significance of the interaction between factors. MODEL statement
LSMEANS with SLICE=option (Also using PROC PLM)
ODS SELECT
Interpret the output of the GLM procedure to identify interaction between
factors: p-value
F Value
R Squared
TYPE I SS
TYPE III SS
Linear Regression - 20%
Fit a multiple linear regression model using the REG and GLM procedures
Use the REG procedure to fit a multiple linear regression model
Use the GLM procedure to fit a multiple linear regression model
Analyze the output of the REG, PLM, and GLM procedures for multiple linear
regression models
Interpret REG or GLM procedure output for a multiple linear regression model:
convert models to algebraic expressions
Convert models to algebraic expressions
Identify missing degrees of freedom
Identify variance due to model/error, and total variance
Calculate a missing F value
Identify variable with largest impact to model
For output from two models, identify which model is better
Identify how much of the variation in the dependent variable is explained by
the model
Conclusions that can be drawn from REG, GLM, or PLM output: (about H0, model
quality, graphics)
Use the REG or GLMSELECT procedure to perform model selection Use the SELECTION option of the model statement in the GLMSELECT procedure
Compare the different model selection methods (STEPWISE, FORWARD, BACKWARD)
Enable ODS graphics to display graphs from the REG or GLMSELECT procedure
Identify best models by examining the graphical output (fit criterion from the
REG or GLMSELECT procedure)
Assign names to models in the REG procedure (multiple model statements)
Assess the validity of a given regression model through the use of diagnostic
and residual analysis Explain the assumptions for linear regression
From a set of residuals plots, asses which assumption about the error terms
has been violated
Use REG procedure MODEL statement options to identify influential observations
(Student Residuals, Cook's D, DFFITS, DFBETAS)
Explain options for handling influential observations
Identify collinearity problems by examining REG procedure output
Use MODEL statement options to diagnose collinearity problems (VIF, COLLIN,
COLLINOINT)
Logistic Regression - 25% Perform logistic regression with the LOGISTIC procedure
Identify experiments that require analysis via logistic regression
Identify logistic regression assumptions
logistic regression concepts (log odds, logit transformation, sigmoidal
relationship between p and X)
Use the LOGISTIC procedure to fit a binary logistic regression model (MODEL
and CLASS statements)
Optimize model performance through input selection Use the LOGISTIC procedure to fit a multiple logistic regression model
LOGISTIC procedure SELECTION=SCORE option
Perform Model Selection (STEPWISE, FORWARD, BACKWARD) within the LOGISTIC
procedure
Interpret the output of the LOGISTIC procedure Interpret the output from the LOGISTIC procedure for binary logistic
regression models: Model Convergence section
Testing Global Null Hypothesis table
Type 3 Analysis of Effects table
Analysis of Maximum Likelihood Estimates table
Association of Predicted Probabilities and Observed Responses
Score new data sets using the LOGISTIC and PLM procedures Use the SCORE statement in the PLM procedure to score new cases
Use the CODE statement in PROC LOGISTIC to score new data
Describe when you would use the SCORE statement vs the CODE statement in PROC
LOGISTIC
Use the INMODEL/OUTMODEL options in PROC LOGISTIC
Explain how to score new data when you have developed a model from a biased
sample
Prepare Inputs for Predictive Model Performance - 20%
Identify the potential challenges when preparing input data for a model
Identify problems that missing values can cause in creating predictive models
and scoring new data sets
Identify limitations of Complete Case Analysis
Explain problems caused by categorical variables with numerous levels
Discuss the problem of redundant variables
Discuss the problem of irrelevant and redundant variables
Discuss the non-linearities and the problems they create in predictive models
Discuss outliers and the problems they create in predictive models
Describe quasi-complete separation
Discuss the effect of interactions
Determine when it is necessary to oversample data
Use the DATA step to manipulate data with loops, arrays, conditional statements
and functions
Use ARRAYs to create missing indicators
Use ARRAYS, LOOP, IF, and explicit OUTPUT statements
Improve the predictive power of categorical inputs
Reduce the number of levels of a categorical variable
Explain thresholding
Explain Greenacre's method
Cluster the levels of a categorical variable via Greenacre's method using the
CLUSTER procedure
o METHOD=WARD option
o FREQ, VAR, ID statement
o Use of ODS output to create an output data set
Convert categorical variables to continuous using smooth weight of evidence
Screen variables for irrelevance and non-linear association using the CORR
procedure
Explain how Hoeffding's D and Spearman statistics can be used to find
irrelevant variables and non-linear associations
Produce Spearman and Hoeffding's D statistic using the CORR procedure (VAR,
WITH statement)
Interpret a scatter plot of Hoeffding's D and Spearman statistic to identify
irrelevant variables and non-linear associations
Screen variables for non-linearity using empirical logit plots
Use the RANK procedure to bin continuous input variables (GROUPS=, OUT=
option; VAR, RANK statements)
Interpret RANK procedure output
Use the MEANS procedure to calculate the sum and means for the target cases
and total events (NWAY option; CLASS, VAR, OUTPUT statements)
Create empirical logit plots with the SGPLOT procedure
Interpret empirical logit plots
Measure Model Performance - 25% Apply the principles of honest assessment to model performance measurement
Explain techniques to honestly assess classifier performance
Explain overfitting
Explain differences between validation and test data
Identify the impact of performing data preparation before data is split
Assess classifier performance using the confusion matrix
Explain the confusion matrix
Define: Accuracy, Error Rate, Sensitivity, Specificity, PV+, PV-
Explain the effect of oversampling on the confusion matrix
Adjust the confusion matrix for oversampling
Model selection and validation using training and validation data
Divide data into training and validation data sets using the SURVEYSELECT
procedure
Discuss the subset selection methods available in PROC LOGISTIC
Discuss methods to determine interactions (forward selection, with bar and @
notation)
Create interaction plot with the results from PROC LOGISTIC
Select the model with fit statistics (BIC, AIC, KS, Brier score)
Create and interpret graphs (ROC, lift, and gains charts) for model comparison
and selection
Explain and interpret charts (ROC, Lift, Gains)
Create a ROC curve (OUTROC option of the SCORE statement in the LOGISTIC
procedure)
Use the ROC and ROCCONTRAST statements to create an overlay plot of ROC curves
for two or more models
Explain the concept of depth as it relates to the gains chart
Establish effective decision cut-off values for scoring
Illustrate a decision rule that maximizes the expected profit
Explain the profit matrix and how to use it to estimate the profit per scored
customer
Calculate decision cutoffs using Bayes rule, given a profit matrix
Determine optimum cutoff values from profit plots
Given a profit matrix, and model results, determine the model with the highest
average profit
Note: All 22 main objectives will be tested on every exam. The 126 expanded
objectives are provided for additional explanation and define the entire domain
that could be tested.
QUESTION 1 When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for
honest assessment, what is the most appropriate method for handling the mean
imputation?
A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and
test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and
test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and
validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own
partition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now
interested in getting the
sensitivity and specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of
cutoff values.
Which statement and option combination will generate these statistics?
A. Score data=valid1 out=roc;
B. Score data=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1 resp(event= '1') = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1 resp(event"1") = gender region/ out=roc;
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are
acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 An analyst has a sufficient volume of data to perform a 3-way partition of
the data into training, validation, and test sets to perform honest assessment
during the model building process.
What is the purpose of the training data set?
A. To provide an unbiased measure of assessment for the final model.
B. To compare models and select and fine-tune the final model.
C. To reduce total sample size to make computations more efficient.
D. To build the predictive models.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The total modeling data has been split into training, validation, and test
data. What is the best data to use for model assessment?
A. Training data
B. Total data
C. Test data
D. Validation data
