MB-901 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Exam

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to understand Microsoft Dynamics 365; artificial intelligence (AI); mixed reality (MR); the Power Platform; cloud concepts; cloud security; role-based security in Dynamics 365; Common Data Service; data management framework; Dynamics 365 reporting; Dynamics 365 integrations; and cloud deployment.

This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.

Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Audience Profile
This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%)
Describe integration capabilities
• integration across Dynamics 365 apps
• integration across Microsoft products
• integration with third-party apps
• custom integrations in Dynamics 365

Describe Dynamics 365 cloud security
• encryption
• authentication
• data ownership
• data center access
• SSO
• Data loss protection (DLP)
• industry standard certifications (GDPR, etc)

Understand the benefits of role based security
• app role-based security
• leveraging security roles
• streamlined user experience
• out-of-the-box security roles

Identify the business value of the Microsoft cloud
• Azure features used by Dynamics 365
• PaaS
• Life Cycle Services (LCS)

Understand the use of Power Platform in Dynamics 365
• Power Apps
• Power BI
• Power Automate
• AI Builder
• Common Data Service

Understand the benefits of the Common Data Service
• analytics
• extensibility
• interoperability
• consistency

Identify Dynamics 365 reporting capabilities
• built in reporting
• role-based reporting
• extensible reporting

Understand AI and Mixed Reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%)
Leverage AI for data insights
• fraud protection
• virtual agents
• sales insights
• customer insights
• relationship insights
• customer service insights

Leverage mixed reality
• remote assist
• guides
• layouts

Understand model-driven apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales
• dynamics 365 sales automation
• pipeline management
• contact management
• customer requests and follow up
• LinkedIn Sales Navigator

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Marketing
• lead generation and qualifications
• customer journey
• surveys
• landing pages
• segmentation
• event management
• dynamics 365 for marketing

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Field Service
• Resource Scheduling Optimization (RSO)
• Connected Field Service
• service resource scheduling
• proactive customer service
• Field Service Mobile

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Service
• account management
• omni channel service
• case life cycle
• knowledge articles

Understand Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance
• General Ledger
• Accounts Payable
• Accounts Receivable
• project accounting
• budgeting
• global attributes
• end to end business processes
• real time cash flow visibility
• enterprise asset management

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Human Resources
• employee self-service
• personnel management
• benefits management
• employee development

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Business Central
• finance
• supply chain
• project management
• sales and service
• budgeting
• when to use Business Central vs other Dynamics 365 products

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management
• project accounting
• modernize operations
• procurement and sourcing
• manufacturing
• warehouse management
• master planning
• product information

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Commerce
• retail capability
• Channel Management
• Point of Sale (POS)
• mobile commerce

QUESTION 1
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the cloud.
You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?

A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts

Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 3
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows
sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile
devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A
 

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70-537 Microsoft Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack Exam

Published: January 31, 2018
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Azure
Credit toward certification: MCSA, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

On January 14, 2020, this exam was updated. To learn more about these changes and how they affect the skills measured, please download and review the exam 70-537 change document.

Deploying and Integrating an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%)
Build test environments by using the Azure Stack Hub Development Kit (ASDK).
This objective may include but is not limited to: use PowerShell commands; install updated ASDK; troubleshoot failed installs; post-deployment registration
Configure identity and PKI for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: integrate Azure Stack Hub with AD FS, create custom RBAC roles for Azure Stack registration, validate Azure identity, validate AD FS integaration, validate graph integration, generate PKI certificates, validate PKI certificates, remediate PKI certificates
Configure DNS for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure external DNS name resolution from within Azure Stack Hub; configure Azure Stack Hub DNS names from outside Azure Stack Hub
Configure connectivity for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: manage firewall ports needed at the edge; configure connectivity to the data center; install and renew certificates for public endpoints, connect to Azure by using ExpressRoute
Connect to and perform API-based administration on Azure Stack Hub.
This objective may include but is not limited to: connect to the stack by using PowerShell; configure client certificates; configure firewall to support remote administration; establish RBAC roles for the Azure Stack Hub fabric; create subscriptions for end users

Configuring PaaS and IaaS for an Azure Stack Hub Environment (25-30%)
Configure and administer the App Service resource provider.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure system; configure source control; configure worker tiers; configure subscription quotas; scale worker tiers and App Service infrastructure roles; add custom software; configure Azure Stack Hub networking security
Configure and administer database resource providers.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure and administer the SQL adapter; configure and administer the MySQL adapter; set up SKUs; set up additional hosting capacity
Configure and administer IaaS services.
This objective may include but is not limited to: implement virtual machine images; prepare Linux and Windows images; prepare a custom image; upload an image

Providing Services to and Enabling DevOps for Azure Stack Hub Users (25-30%)
Create and manage quotas, plans, and offers.
This objective may include but is not limited to: create quotas; configure plans; configure offers; configure delegated offers; create add-on plans
Manage tenants and users.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure multi-tenancy in Azure Stack; remove tenants; manage authentication and authorization; establish RBAC roles for the user space
Manage the Azure Marketplace.
This objective may include but is not limited to: enable Azure Marketplace on Azure Stack Hub; plan new packages; create and publish new packages; download Azure Marketplace items
Enable DevOps for users.
This objective may include but is not limited to: enable version control for users; enable CLI for users; manage ARM templates; deploy ARM templates; debug ARM templates; use Azure DevOps to connect to Azure Stack Hub; use continuous integration and continuous deployment to automate a pipeline that targets Azure Stack Hub, configure app identity to access resources using Azure AD and AD FS service principals

Maintaining and Monitoring an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%)
Plan and implement a backup-recovery and a disaster-recovery solution.
This objective may include but is not limited to: back up Azure Stack Hub infrastructure services; perform cloud recovery of Azure Stack Hub, replicate and fail over Azure Stack Hub VMs to Azure; back up and restore PaaS resource data; back up and restore backup and restore of user Azure Stack Hub VM-OS, disks, volumes, and apps
Manage and monitor capacity, performance, updates, and alerts.
This objective may include but is not limited to: manage storage; monitor available storage; integrate existing monitoring services; manage public IP address ranges; monitor infrastructure component health; monitor Azure Stack Hub memory, public IP addresses, and storage user consumption; apply updates; update system firmware; review and react to alerts; configure external auditing and syslog forwarding; replace hardware
Manage usage reporting and log collection.
This objective may include but is not limited to: provide access to the usage database; test usage by using the ASDK; collect the usage data by using the Provider Resource Usage API and the Tenant Resource Usage API; investigate the usage time versus the reported time

Instructor-led training
Course 20537: Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack

Online training
INF240x: Configuring and Operating Microsoft Azure Stack

Self-paced training
Azure Stack Documentation
Azure Stack Development Kit (free!)

Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are Azure administrators and Azure Stack Hub operators who use Azure Stack Hub to provide cloud services to their end users or customers from within their own data center.

Candidates for this exam should have significant experience managing and operating Azure Stack Hub environments. Candidates should have a strong understanding of Azure as well as some knowledge of virtualization, networking, and identity management. Candidates should also understand how Azure Stack Hub enables DevOps processes and the hybrid development model.

Candidates for this exam are expected to demonstrate the ability to plan, deploy, package, update, and maintain the Azure Stack Hub infrastructure. Candidates must also demonstrate the ability to offer hybrid cloud resources and requested services, and to manage infrastructure as a service (IaaS) and platform as a service (PaaS).

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Stack integrated system in the perimeter network.
You need to ensure that users in the Internet can access Azure Stack Storage blobs.
Which TCP ports should you open on the firewall?

A. 20 and 21
B. 137 only
C. 80 and 443
D. 445 and 5445

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
You establish a PowerShell session to a privileged endpoint, and you run several commands.
You need to ensure that logs of the session activity are exported to a file share.
Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Exit
B. Clear-Host
C. Out-Default
D. Close-PrivilegedEndpoint
E. Exit-PSSession

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system that uses an external domain name of west.fabrikam.com
Currently, tenant users access the system internally.
You need to create a SSL certificate for the publication of externally accessible endpoints. The solution must
ensure that tenant users can upload VHD files to Azure Stack remotely.
Which two names should you include in the certificate? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. adminmanagement.west.fabrikam.com
B. *.west.fabrikam.com
C. *.blob.west.fabrikam.com
D. adminportal.west.fabrikam.com
E. *.trafficmanager.west.fabrikam.com

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system.
You implement federation between adatum.com and Azure Stack.
You need to ensure that a user named admin01@adatum.com can manage Azure Stack from the Azure Stack administrator portal.
Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Set-ServiceAdminOwner
B. Set-AzsUserSubscription
C. New-CloudAdminUser
D. Set-CloudAdminPassword

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
What are three possible types of records that you can create in Azure Stack DNS? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. SRV
B. MX
C. PTR
D. NSEC
E. AAAA

Answer: A,B,C


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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Exam

ISACA’s Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) certification indicates expertise in identifying and managing enterprise IT risk and implementing and maintaining information systems controls. Gain instant recognition and credibility with CRISC and boost your career!

THE CRISC DIFFERENCE
Whether you are seeking a new career opportunity or striving to grow within your current organization, a CRISC certification proves your expertise in these work-related domains

PREPARE FOR THE EXAM
Set yourself up to succeed on exam day. Whether you prefer to prep on your own time or want the additional guidance and interaction that comes with live instruction, we have the right CRISC test prep solutions for you.

Course Description
The CRISC Online Review Course is an online preparation course that prepares learners to pass the CRISC certification exam using proven instructional design techniques and interactive activities.The course covers all four of the CRISC domains, and each section corresponds directly to the CRISC job practice.

The course incorporates video, interactive eLearning modules, downloadable, interactive workbooks, downloadable job aids, case study activities, and pre-and post-course assessments. Learners will be able to navigate the course at their own pace, following a recommended structure, or target preferred job practice areas. Learners may also start and stop the course based on their study schedule, picking up exactly where they left off the next time they access the course.

Learning Objectives:

At the completion of this course you will be able to:
Identify the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives and alignment with the Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) strategy.
Analyze and evaluate IT risk to determine the likelihood and impact on business objectives to enable risk-based decision making.
Determine risk response options and evaluate their efficiency and effectiveness to manage risk in alignment with business objectives.
Continuously monitor and report on IT risk and controls to relevant stakeholders to ensure the continued efficiency and effectiveness of the IT risk management strategy and its alignment with business objectives.

Included Materials:
Video
Interactive Content
Downloadable workbooks and job aids
Case study activities
Practice exam

Ideal For:
Professionals preparing to become CRISC certified
Risk practitioners
Students or recent graduates

Cancellation/Refund Policy
All purchases of online learning courses are final. Access to the online learning courses and materials is immediate upon purchasing; therefore no refunds or exchanges will be provided. Prices subject to change without notice.

Enterprise Training
Online review courses are also available for purchase through our enterprise sales team for larger organizations. Visit the Enterprise Training page and reach out to an associate for more information.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that KRIs continue to effectively
capture these changes.
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external environments are constantly
changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they can capture the changes in
threat and vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI reporting, but is not the
reason for maintenance of KRIs.
B: While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect to their sensitivity, the most
important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to effectively capture the changes in
threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that because of change of threat and
vulnerability overtime.
C: Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for KRI maintenance.

QUESTION 2
You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation process. The
project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few administrative closure
activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have wrecked the project but you and your
project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the project costs or project
completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have identified during the project's
monitoring and controlling process?

A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization's lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project's risk register already.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the organization's lessons learned
database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if relevant.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk response plan during the project and
they'll be entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
B: The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after completing the project, they should be
entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
D: If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project's risk register then it may not be
shared with project managers working on some other project.

QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save
$100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?

A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an opportunity, and the appropriate
strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks
or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the
organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for
positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion
is an example of exploit response.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk events, and not in positive risk
events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save $100,000, hence it is a positive risk
event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.
B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs. But as
this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.

QUESTION 4
You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months and will cost
$750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and stakeholders to identify risks
within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why you have scheduled so
many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just initially during the project planning.
What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?

A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during project execution.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Risk identification is an iterative process because new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Stakeholders are encouraged to participate in the risk identification process, but this is not the best choice.
B: Risk identification focuses on discovering new risk events, not the events which did not happen.
D: The primary reason for iterations of risk identification is to identify new risk events.

QUESTION 5
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a rating for
occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?

A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
Identify potential failure effects
Identify potential causes
Establish links between each identified potential cause
Identify potential failure modes
Assess severity, occurrence and detection
Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to score these assessments.
Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by occurrence and detection.
RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection
Hence,
RPN = 4 * 5 * 6
= 120
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence, and detection.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs are highly relevant and possess
a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. KRIs help in avoiding excessively large number of
risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have.
As KRIs are the indicators of risk, hence its most important function is to effectively give an early warning
signal that a high risk is emerging to enable management to take proactive action before the risk actually
becomes a loss.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is one of the important functions of KRIs which can help management to improve but is not as
important as giving early warning.
C: KRIs provide an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance through metric setting, but this is
not as important as giving early warning.
D: This is not as important as giving early warning.
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PSM-I Professional Scrum Master I Exam

Prove Your Scrum Knowledge and Get Certified
The Professional Scrum MasterTM level I (PSM I) assessment is available to anyone who wishes to validate his or her depth of knowledge of the PictureScrum framework and its application. Those who pass the assessment will receive the industry recognized PSM I Certification to demonstrate their fundamental level of Scrum mastery.

Taking a course is not required and if you feel that you already possess a high level of Scrum knowledge, understanding of the Scrum Guide and how to apply Scrum within Scrum Teams, you have the option to take the PSM I assessment directly. However, there are courses available to help you prepare for the assessment and gain a stronger understanding of Scrum. Depending on your role, either the 2-day Professional Scrum Foundations or Professional Scrum Master course is highly recommended.

Prepare for the Assessment
The assessment is difficult; preparation is required to achieve a passing score. Reading the Scrum Guide and taking the Open Assessments alone isn't typically enough preparation and we recommend reviewing the content below:

The assessment covers topics from multiple Focus Areas defined by the Professional Scrum Competencies.
Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum Guide and how you would apply Scrum within a Scrum Team.
The PSM I Suggested Reading lists the Focus Areas from which questions may be selected during the assessment.
The Scrum Master Learning Path contains many additional resources to help you prepare to take the PSM I Assessment.

Search the list of existing Professional Scrum certification holders here or see a breakdown on how many people hold certifications.

To protect the integrity of the certification process, Scrum.org does not share information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or incorrectly. Learn More

The cost of PSM I is $150 USD. Assessment passwords are valid for one attempt, do not expire and remain valid until used. See below for more details.

Details
Fee: $150 USD per attempt
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 60 minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Difficulty: Intermediate
Language: English only
Scrum Resources
Required course: None
Recommended courses: Professional Scrum Foundations or Professional Scrum Master
PSM Subject Areas
Practice Assessment: Scrum Open
Ways to Learn More to help you prepare
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only

When you purchase a password, it is set up in our system and emailed to you within one business day. All Students in a PSM or PSF course are emailed a password upon completion of the course (typically within 3-5 business days).**

Certification
If you pass the PSM I assessment you will receive the industry-recognized "PSM I" certification, along with a PSM I logo that you can use to identify your achievement. In addition, your name will be posted publicly for colleagues, managers, and potential employers to see.

Unlike other Scrum certifications that require only class attendance, Scrum.org certification requires a minimum score on an online assessment. Attending a course is neither required nor sufficient for certification. This gives Scrum.org certification teeth and ensures that it has true value in the marketplace.

Search the list of Professional Scrum Certificate Holders


QUESTION 1
When many Scrum Teams are working on the same product, should all of their increments be integrated every Sprint?

A. Yes, but only for Scrum Teams whose work has dependencies.
B. Yes, otherwise the Product Owners (and stakeholders) may not be able to accurately inspect what is done.
C. No, each Scrum Team stands alone.
D. No, that is far too hard and must be done in a hardening Sprint.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When can a Development Team cancel a Sprint?

A. It can’t. Only Product Owners can cancel Sprints.
B. When functional expectations are not well understood.
C. When the Product Owner is absent too often.
D. When the selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint become unachievable.
E. When a technical dependency cannot be resolved.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which output from Sprint Planning provides the Development Team with a target and overarching direction for the Sprint?

A. The Sprint Backlog.
B. The Sprint Goal
C. The release plan.
D. Sprint Review minutes.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
How should a Development Team deal with non-functional requirements?

A. Ensure every Increment meets them.
B. Make sure the release department understands these requirements, but it is not the Development Team’s responsibility.
C. Handle them during the Integration Sprint preceding the Release Sprint.
D. Assign them to the lead developers on the team.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When is a Sprint over?

A. When the Product Owner says it is done.
B. When all Product Backlog items meet their definition of “Done”.
C. When all the tasks are completed.
D. When the time-box expires.

Correct Answer: D


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ACP-600 Project Administration in Jira Server Exam

Certification | Jira Project Admins / Jira Admins | JIRA / JIRA Software

Capable Project Administrators are essential to the optimal functioning of Jira in large organizations.
Certified Jira Project Administrators are the power users who know how to configure projects and boards, customize workflows and manage project permissions in their organization's Jira Server or Data Center instance. They live in Jira day-to-day, and can help scale their instance to meet the demand of their business, so their Jira Administrator and teams can get more work done.

Six months' exposure to Jira is recommended before taking the training course.

Exam Number ACP-600
LANGUAGES English, Japanese, Korean
TIME WINDOW You must complete the exam within 60 days of your purchase of the course.
Location Proctored online at your own location
Products Jira Software Server Enterprise Releases
Registration Availability
Price USD $100 for course + exam voucher bundle
Exam Time 180 minutes
Passing Score 63% (effective 15 March 2019)
Questions Up to 75

Important Concepts to Master
Which configurations (schemes, versions, components, etc) are shared versus unique
when new projects are (1) created from template or (2) with a shared configuration?
Who can change a Project Key, and what are the effects on issues in the project?
Which project details can be added and changed by Project Administrators?
What are the uses of Project Category in Jira?
What features are available for Jira Software projects, and to users who have Jira
Software application access (as compared to just Jira Core)?
What is the importance of the Browse Projects permission?

How do combinations of permissions work together to enable specific actions? For example:
• What permissions are needed to Move Issues?
• What permissions are needed to Edit or Delete All Worklogs?
• What permissions are needed to rank issues in the backlog?
• What permissions are needed to assign issues to yourself?
• What requirements must a user meet in order to use a particular workflow transition?
What is an Issue Collector and what permissions are needed to configure it?
Where are all the places you need to look to fully identify what permissions a particular user has?
What are the use cases where it is best to use Project Roles rather than Groups?
Which business requirements necessitate the use of separate issue types in a project (e.g. different screens, workflows, etc.)?
What is the relationship between screens, screen schemes and issue type screen schemes?
• How are they related to field configurations?
• How do you determine the maximum number of screens possibly used in a
project (for issue operations and workflow transitions)?
• Who can make changes to screens, screen schemes and issue type screen schemes?
What are all the various factors that influence whether a field is visible on a screen?
When is it best to use components, and when is it best to use a custom field instead?
What are the features, uses, limitations/restrictions of workflow changes, especially the Simplified Workflow?
1. Who can change the Simplified Workflow? What are the limitations on changes to the Simplified Workflow?
2. What changes can be performed on statuses and transitions?
3. What things may need to be updated as a result of workflow changes of any kind?
4. What workflow changes can be done through the board by board administrators?
5. What types of workflow changes can Project Administrators make if Extended
Project Administration is enabled?
How do these settings affect notifications?
• AutoWatch setting
• My Changes setting
• Share This Issue
• @Mentions
• Filter Subscriptions
What are the configuration options for all the out-of-box reports and gadgets (except Agile reports and gadgets)? What is their behavior and expected results?
How are valid JQL queries written? What operators and arguments are valid for various JQL functions (e.g. membersOf(), StartOfDay(), WAS, CHANGED, etc.)
Which export options are available are available from the Issue Navigator?

Exam Topics
Roles, Permissions and Issue Level Security
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine appropriate permissions for project team members
􀀀 Determine if and how issue-level security should be configured in a project
􀀀 Manage project role membership
􀀀 Troubleshoot issues with roles, permissions and issue security and escalate if required Project Configuration
􀀀 Describe how versions are managed in Jira
􀀀 Given requirements, determine how to create and configure project components and auto assignment
􀀀 Describe how to manage general project configurations (e.g., project details, project sidebar)
􀀀 Describe the use of schemes and the implications of using project templates Issue Types, Workflows, Fields, Screens and Notifications
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine the appropriate issue types
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine the appropriate Jira workflow configuration
􀀀 Given a scenario, determine the appropriate method to edit project workflows to meet business needs
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine appropriate screen configuration
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine appropriate field configuration
􀀀 Given business requirements, determine if and how to add fields to project screens
􀀀 Given business requirements, recommend the appropriate project notifications
􀀀 Troubleshoot issues with notifications, workflows, fields and screens Reports, Dashboards and JQL
􀀀 Determine an appropriate dashboard configuration
􀀀 Identify the appropriate project reports
􀀀 Translate business requirements into appropriate JQL queries Global Configuration
􀀀 Given a scenario, select changes to issue links, time tracking, priorities and resolutions

QUESTION 1
For the DEV project, Max has these requirements relating to time logging:
I need to be able to edit time logs.
I need to be able to delete time logs.
Which three project permissions does Max need in order to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Schedule Issues
B. Edit All Worklogs
C. Move Issues
D. Delete All Worklogs
E. Work On Issues
F. Edit All Comments

Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 2
Indicate which two use cases require the use of issue-level security within a project. (Choose two.)

A. Only managers should be able to see Critical issues in the project.
B. Only managers should be able to choose who sees certain issues in the project.
C. Only managers should be able to see the project.
D. Only managers should be able to set the Due Date on issues in the project.
E. Only managers should be able to Close issues in the project.

Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 3
Which two can project administrators associate with project roles? (Choose two.)

A. Security levels
B. Application access
C. Global permissions
D. Groups
E. Individual users
F. Project permissions

Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 4
Martina is unable to perform the following actions in the App project:
Create and manage versions
Create and manage components
Rank issues in the backlog
The App project does not use a shared permission scheme.
Which two permissions will allow her to perform those actions? (Choose two.)

A. Transition Issues
B. Move Issues
C. Administer Projects
D. Bulk Change
E. Schedule Issues

Correct Answer: C,E

QUESTION 5
All projects use a shared permission scheme.
The Browse Projects permission needs to be updated. Project administrators need to be able to manage access to their own projects.
What entry should be added to the Browse Projects permission?

A. Group
B. Project lead
C. Project Role
D. Single user
E. Application access

Correct Answer: B
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A00-240 SAS Certified Statistical Business Analyst Using SAS 9: Regression and Modeling Credential Exam

Regression and Modeling
Designed for SAS professionals who use SAS/STAT® software to conduct and interpret complex statistical data analysis
Successful candidates should have experience in:
Analysis of variance.
Linear and logistic regression.
Preparing inputs for predictive models.
Measuring model performance.

ANOVA - 10%
Verify the assumptions of ANOVA
Analyze differences between population means using the GLM and TTEST procedures
Perform ANOVA post hoc test to evaluate treatment effect
Detect and analyze interactions between factors

Linear Regression - 20%
Fit a multiple linear regression model using the REG and GLM procedures
Analyze the output of the REG, PLM, and GLM procedures for multiple linear regression models
Use the REG or GLMSELECT procedure to perform model selection
Assess the validity of a given regression model through the use of diagnostic and residual analysis

Logistic Regression - 25%
Perform logistic regression with the LOGISTIC procedure
Optimize model performance through input selection
Interpret the output of the LOGISTIC procedure
Score new data sets using the LOGISTIC and PLM procedures

Prepare Inputs for Predictive Model Performance - 20%
Identify the potential challenges when preparing input data for a model
Use the DATA step to manipulate data with loops, arrays, conditional statements and functions
Improve the predictive power of categorical inputs
Screen variables for irrelevance and non-linear association using the CORR procedure
Screen variables for non-linearity using empirical logit plots

Measure Model Performance - 25%
Apply the principles of honest assessment to model performance measurement
Assess classifier performance using the confusion matrix
Model selection and validation using training and validation data
Create and interpret graphs (ROC, lift, and gains charts) for model comparison and selection
Establish effective decision cut-off values for scoring

ANOVA - 10%
Verify the assumptions of ANOVA
 Explain the central limit theorem and when it must be applied
 Examine the distribution of continuous variables (histogram, box-whisker, Q-Q plots)
 Describe the effect of skewness on the normal distribution
 Define H0, H1, Type I/II error, statistical power, p-value
 Describe the effect of sample size on p-value and power
 Interpret the results of hypothesis testing
 Interpret histograms and normal probability charts
 Draw conclusions about your data from histogram, box-whisker, and Q-Q plots
 Identify the kinds of problems may be present in the data: (biased sample, outliers, extreme values)
 For a given experiment, verify that the observations are independent
 For a given experiment, verify the errors are normally distributed
 Use the UNIVARIATE procedure to examine residuals
 For a given experiment, verify all groups have equal response variance
 Use the HOVTEST option of MEANS statement in PROC GLM to asses response variance

Analyze differences between population means using the GLM and TTEST procedures
 Use the GLM Procedure to perform ANOVA
o CLASS statement
o MODEL statement
o MEANS statement
o OUTPUT statement

 Evaluate the null hypothesis using the output of the GLM procedure
 Interpret the statistical output of the GLM procedure (variance derived from MSE, F value, p-value R**2, Levene's test)
 Interpret the graphical output of the GLM procedure
 Use the TTEST Procedure to compare means

Perform ANOVA post hoc test to evaluate treatment effect
 Use the LSMEANS statement in the GLM or PLM procedure to perform pairwise comparisons
 Use PDIFF option of LSMEANS statement
 Use ADJUST option of the LSMEANS statement (TUKEY and DUNNETT)
 Interpret diffograms to evaluate pairwise comparisons
 Interpret control plots to evaluate pairwise comparisons
 Compare/Contrast use of pairwise T-Tests, Tukey and Dunnett comparison methods

Detect and analyze interactions between factors
 Use the GLM procedure to produce reports that will help determine the significance of the interaction between factors. MODEL statement
 LSMEANS with SLICE=option (Also using PROC PLM)
 ODS SELECT
 Interpret the output of the GLM procedure to identify interaction between factors: p-value
 F Value
 R Squared
 TYPE I SS
 TYPE III SS

Linear Regression - 20%
Fit a multiple linear regression model using the REG and GLM procedures
 Use the REG procedure to fit a multiple linear regression model
 Use the GLM procedure to fit a multiple linear regression model

Analyze the output of the REG, PLM, and GLM procedures for multiple linear regression models
 Interpret REG or GLM procedure output for a multiple linear regression model: convert models to algebraic expressions
 Convert models to algebraic expressions
 Identify missing degrees of freedom
 Identify variance due to model/error, and total variance
 Calculate a missing F value
 Identify variable with largest impact to model
 For output from two models, identify which model is better
 Identify how much of the variation in the dependent variable is explained by the model
 Conclusions that can be drawn from REG, GLM, or PLM output: (about H0, model quality, graphics)

Use the REG or GLMSELECT procedure to perform model selection
 Use the SELECTION option of the model statement in the GLMSELECT procedure
 Compare the different model selection methods (STEPWISE, FORWARD, BACKWARD)
 Enable ODS graphics to display graphs from the REG or GLMSELECT procedure
 Identify best models by examining the graphical output (fit criterion from the REG or GLMSELECT procedure)
 Assign names to models in the REG procedure (multiple model statements)

Assess the validity of a given regression model through the use of diagnostic and residual analysis
 Explain the assumptions for linear regression
 From a set of residuals plots, asses which assumption about the error terms has been violated
 Use REG procedure MODEL statement options to identify influential observations (Student Residuals, Cook's D, DFFITS, DFBETAS)
 Explain options for handling influential observations
 Identify collinearity problems by examining REG procedure output
 Use MODEL statement options to diagnose collinearity problems (VIF, COLLIN, COLLINOINT)

Logistic Regression - 25%
Perform logistic regression with the LOGISTIC procedure
 Identify experiments that require analysis via logistic regression
 Identify logistic regression assumptions
 logistic regression concepts (log odds, logit transformation, sigmoidal relationship between p and X)
 Use the LOGISTIC procedure to fit a binary logistic regression model (MODEL and CLASS statements)

Optimize model performance through input selection
 Use the LOGISTIC procedure to fit a multiple logistic regression model
 LOGISTIC procedure SELECTION=SCORE option
 Perform Model Selection (STEPWISE, FORWARD, BACKWARD) within the LOGISTIC procedure

Interpret the output of the LOGISTIC procedure
 Interpret the output from the LOGISTIC procedure for binary logistic regression models: Model Convergence section
 Testing Global Null Hypothesis table
 Type 3 Analysis of Effects table
 Analysis of Maximum Likelihood Estimates table
 Association of Predicted Probabilities and Observed Responses

Score new data sets using the LOGISTIC and PLM procedures
 Use the SCORE statement in the PLM procedure to score new cases
 Use the CODE statement in PROC LOGISTIC to score new data
 Describe when you would use the SCORE statement vs the CODE statement in PROC LOGISTIC
 Use the INMODEL/OUTMODEL options in PROC LOGISTIC
 Explain how to score new data when you have developed a model from a biased sample

Prepare Inputs for Predictive Model Performance - 20%

Identify the potential challenges when preparing input data for a model
 Identify problems that missing values can cause in creating predictive models and scoring new data sets
 Identify limitations of Complete Case Analysis
 Explain problems caused by categorical variables with numerous levels
 Discuss the problem of redundant variables
 Discuss the problem of irrelevant and redundant variables
 Discuss the non-linearities and the problems they create in predictive models
 Discuss outliers and the problems they create in predictive models
 Describe quasi-complete separation
 Discuss the effect of interactions
 Determine when it is necessary to oversample data

Use the DATA step to manipulate data with loops, arrays, conditional statements and functions
 Use ARRAYs to create missing indicators
 Use ARRAYS, LOOP, IF, and explicit OUTPUT statements

Improve the predictive power of categorical inputs
 Reduce the number of levels of a categorical variable
 Explain thresholding
 Explain Greenacre's method
 Cluster the levels of a categorical variable via Greenacre's method using the CLUSTER procedure

o METHOD=WARD option
o FREQ, VAR, ID statement
o Use of ODS output to create an output data set

 Convert categorical variables to continuous using smooth weight of evidence

Screen variables for irrelevance and non-linear association using the CORR procedure
 Explain how Hoeffding's D and Spearman statistics can be used to find irrelevant variables and non-linear associations
 Produce Spearman and Hoeffding's D statistic using the CORR procedure (VAR, WITH statement)
 Interpret a scatter plot of Hoeffding's D and Spearman statistic to identify irrelevant variables and non-linear associations

Screen variables for non-linearity using empirical logit plots
 Use the RANK procedure to bin continuous input variables (GROUPS=, OUT= option; VAR, RANK statements)
 Interpret RANK procedure output
 Use the MEANS procedure to calculate the sum and means for the target cases and total events (NWAY option; CLASS, VAR, OUTPUT statements)
 Create empirical logit plots with the SGPLOT procedure
 Interpret empirical logit plots

Measure Model Performance - 25%
Apply the principles of honest assessment to model performance measurement
 Explain techniques to honestly assess classifier performance
 Explain overfitting
 Explain differences between validation and test data
 Identify the impact of performing data preparation before data is split

Assess classifier performance using the confusion matrix
 Explain the confusion matrix
 Define: Accuracy, Error Rate, Sensitivity, Specificity, PV+, PV-
 Explain the effect of oversampling on the confusion matrix
 Adjust the confusion matrix for oversampling

Model selection and validation using training and validation data
 Divide data into training and validation data sets using the SURVEYSELECT procedure
 Discuss the subset selection methods available in PROC LOGISTIC
 Discuss methods to determine interactions (forward selection, with bar and @ notation)
 Create interaction plot with the results from PROC LOGISTIC
 Select the model with fit statistics (BIC, AIC, KS, Brier score)

Create and interpret graphs (ROC, lift, and gains charts) for model comparison and selection
 Explain and interpret charts (ROC, Lift, Gains)
 Create a ROC curve (OUTROC option of the SCORE statement in the LOGISTIC procedure)
 Use the ROC and ROCCONTRAST statements to create an overlay plot of ROC curves for two or more models
 Explain the concept of depth as it relates to the gains chart

Establish effective decision cut-off values for scoring
 Illustrate a decision rule that maximizes the expected profit
 Explain the profit matrix and how to use it to estimate the profit per scored customer
 Calculate decision cutoffs using Bayes rule, given a profit matrix
 Determine optimum cutoff values from profit plots
 Given a profit matrix, and model results, determine the model with the highest average profit

Note: All 22 main objectives will be tested on every exam. The 126 expanded objectives are provided for additional explanation and define the entire domain that could be tested.

QUESTION 1
When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for honest assessment, what is the most appropriate method for handling the mean imputation?

A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own partition.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now interested in getting the
sensitivity and specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of cutoff values.
Which statement and option combination will generate these statistics?

A. Score data=valid1 out=roc;
B. Score data=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1 resp(event= '1') = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1 resp(event"1") = gender region/ out=roc;

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
An analyst has a sufficient volume of data to perform a 3-way partition of the data into training, validation, and test sets to perform honest assessment during the model building process.
What is the purpose of the training data set?

A. To provide an unbiased measure of assessment for the final model.
B. To compare models and select and fine-tune the final model.
C. To reduce total sample size to make computations more efficient.
D. To build the predictive models.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The total modeling data has been split into training, validation, and test data. What is the best data to use for model assessment?

A. Training data
B. Total data
C. Test data
D. Validation data

Correct Answer: D
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Certified B2C Commerce Developer Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer (WI20)

ABOUT THE SALESFORCE CERTIFIED B2C COMMERCE DEVELOPER CREDENTIAL
The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer credential is designed for individuals who have experience as full stack developers for Salesforce B2C Commerce Digital. This credential is targeted toward Salesforce customers, partners, and employees who want to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in using the B2C Commerce Digital to develop an eCommerce solution, such as: setting up the development environment, working with the Digital data model, working with site content, using Business Manager to perform site configuration tasks, using scripts to extend site business logic, interacting with external applications, optimizing site performance, and troubleshooting common issues.

SECTION 1. PURPOSE OF THIS EXAM GUIDE
This Exam Guide is designed to help candidates evaluate their readiness to pass the Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam. This guide provides information about the target audience for the certification exam, recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam objectives; all with the intent of helping candidates achieve a passing score. Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, and self-study to maximize the likelihood of passing the exam.

SECTION 2. AUDIENCE DESCRIPTION: SALESFORCE CERTIFIED B2C COMMERCE DEVELOPER

The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer generally has three to six months of experience in a B2C Commerce Developer role and has the skills and knowledge of the following concepts:
 Has knowledge of how the elements of a B2C Commerce Digital site interact.
 Can create cartridges to add reusable functionality to a site.
 Has knowledge of the elements contained within SiteGenesis.
 Can describe the behavior of pipelines in existing sites or LINK cartridges.
 Can create and troubleshoot JavaScript controllers to add business logic to a site.
 Can create reusable code using ISML templates.
 Can use Digital Script API packages to manipulate site elements.
 Can use the Forms Framework to control the validation, rendering, and storing consumer-entered values.
 Can create and manage jobs using the job scheduler.
 Can use Open Commerce APIs and Web Services.
 Can use appropriate techniques to troubleshoot issues with site code or site configuration as well as optimize site performance.

A candidate for this exam will likely need assistance with:
 Troubleshooting front end tool installation and IDE if the developer encounters issues.
 Using front-end build tools, such as those included with SiteGenesis.
 Replicating code and data using the appropriate instances of the B2C Commerce Digital infrastructure.
 Architecting solution elements.
 Managing Certificates and private keys.
 Establishing firewall rules for integrations.

A candidate for this exam is not expected to know how to do the following:
 Design a site, build complex sites, or create complex integrations.
 Perform administrative tasks (e.g., maintain a Primary Instance Group, use Control Center for administrative tasks, whitelist IP addresses).
 Use cartridges from the B2C Commerce Community Suite.
 Know any particular development lifecycle methodology.

Typical job roles a Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer candidate may include:
 Front End Developer
 Full Stack Developer
 Technical Architect

SECTION 3. ABOUT THE EXAM

The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam has the following characteristics:
 Content: 60 multiple-choice/multiple-select questions
 Time allotted to complete the exam: 105 minutes
 Passing Score: 70%
 Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
 Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
 Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
 References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
 Prerequisite: None

SECTION 4. RECOMMENDED TRAINING AND REFERENCES
As preparation for this exam, Salesforce recommends a combination of: hands-on experience, training course completion, and self-study.
The following are links to self-study resources that are associated with the areas listed in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide:
Xchange Community*
Commerce Cloud Digital online documentation
Click here* for information on how enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online learning courses.
Courses recommended for this exam:
GEN 001 Getting Started with Demandware
DEV 001 Demandware Platform Architecture Overview
CCD 101 Developing for Digital I
CCD 201 Developing for Digital II

*Please note that you will need an Xchange Community username and password to access the Xchange Community. To obtain access to the Xchange Community, please contact your B2C Commerce Account Manager.

SECTION 5. EXAM OUTLINE
The Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on experience with B2C Commerce and should be able to demonstrate knowledge and expertise in each of the areas below.

ENVIRONMENT SETUP
 Given a sandbox instance and Eclipse IDE, install UX Studio and upload code to the sandbox environment.
 Given a sandbox instance and data import files, import files using Business Manager Import/Export modules.
 Given the code for a storefront site, add the correct sequence of cartridge names to the provided cartridge path.
 Given a sandbox instance and UX Studio connection, troubleshoot file synchronization issues between UX Studio and the sandbox environment.

DIGITAL ARCHITECTURE
 Given a Business Manager task, work with the product data model to manage products, their categorization, and associated inventory.
 Given a configuration task, use Business Manager to work with storefront data to complete a storefront order.
 Given a configuration task, use Business Manager to work with Content Assets, Content Slots, and Content Folders.

DATA MANAGEMENT/BUSINESS MANAGER USAGE
 Given a business requirement, modify site search preferences and settings to enable searching for a specified product attribute.
 Given a business requirement, create a new search refinement definition that can be used on the storefront.
 Given existing code and a sandbox instance, enable and access logging category in Business Manager.
 Given business requirements, pass data to a downstream system; extend the storefront to expose a new attribute on an existing system object type.
 Given business requirements, create a custom object type to store a custom data type.
 Given a performance issue and sample code, determine the faulty cache configuration and identify the cause.
 Given a specification and a sandbox instance, configure OCAPI permissions for Data and Shop APIs.

APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
 Given a development task, create ISML templates that use the following ISML functionality: local include, remote include, modules, and components.
 Configure and use the debugger to inspect script and pipeline functions.
 Given a requirement, create a JavaScript controller that leverages a script and renders a template/JSON.
 Given a coding scenario, modify a JavaScript controller to alter the control logic.
 Given a requirement, modify the appearance of a form, add validation and CSRF protection, and use bindings to process fields.
 Given localization requirements, implement and enhance templates, form definitions, static files, properties files, and persistent object attributes to ensure that localized pages are displayed as expected.
 Given a logging task, write code that logs non-sensitive data to custom log files with different log levels.
 Given a requirement and a simple service specification, integrate and deploy using Service framework.
 Given a use case, extend functionality with a hook that is not previously defined in hooks.json.
 Given code that violates documented best practices, identify the issues and modify the code to conform to best practices including performance & scalability.
 Given a business requirement, use OCAPI Shop and Data APIs to enable interoperability with an external system.

SECTION 6. SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS
The following questions are representative of those on the Salesforce Certified B2C Commerce Developer exam. These questions are not designed to test your readiness to successfully complete the certification exam, but should be used to become familiar with the types of questions on the exam. The actual exam questions may be more or less difficult than this set of questions.
1. A business user wants to add a link to a category page in the body of a content asset. The category's ID is: `mens-jeans`.
Which link function will generate the correct link?

Choose One
A) `$url('Search-Show', 'cgid', 'mens-jeans')$`
B) `$httpUrl('Search-Show', 'cid', 'mens-jeans')$`
C) `$include('Products-Show', 'cgid', 'mens-jeans')$`
D) `$url('Products-Show', 'cid', 'mens-jeans')$`
2. A Developer has been asked to configure a content slot with featured products.

Which two slot content types can the developer configure to achieve the requirement?
Choose Two
A) Content Asset
B) HTML
C) Product
D) Recommendation

3. Given the resource bundle files below:
The file hello.properties contains:
greeting=Hello!
The file hello_fr.properties contains:
greeting=Bonjour!
Which sample code returns the value from the greeting key
in hello_fr.properties?
Choose One
A) dw.web.Resource.msg('greeting_fr', 'hello', null)
B) dw.web.Resource.msg('greeting', 'hello_fr', null)
C) dw.web.Resource.msg('greeting', 'hello', 'fr')
D) dw.web.Resource.msg('greeting', 'hello', null)

4. A Developer is tasked with converting the Universal Containers site from using pipelines to using controllers. As a temporary fix, the Developer wants to call the Account-Login pipeline from a new controller and return to the new controller after login. The Account-Login pipeline has a login form.
What should the Developer do to accomplish this?
Choose One
A) Convert the Account-Login pipeline to a controller.
B) Use the Pipeline.execute() method to call the Account-Login pipeline.
C) Use the Pipeline.call() method to call the Account-Login pipeline.
D) Add a URL Redirect to the Account-Login pipeline.

SECTION 7. ANSWERS TO SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS
1. A
2. C & D
3. D
4. A

SECTION 8. MAINTAINING A CERTIFICATION
One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being up to date on new product releases. Our release exams are designed to ensure you have the latest information you need to be a successful Salesforce Certified expert.
Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
· Maintenance Exam Due Dates
· Verify Your Certification Status
· Overall Maintenance Requirements
Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! Once you earn the credential, if you do not complete all maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire, or in some cases, become suspended. For more information, click here.

QUESTION 1
A Digital Developer has been given a specification to integrate with a REST API for retrieving weather conditions. The service expects parameters to be form encoded.

Which service type should the Developer register?

A. FTP
B. SOAP
C. HTTP Form
D. WebDAV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What happens if the log file size limit is reached in custom logging?

A. Logging is suspended for the day.
B. Logging is suspended for two hours.
C. The log file is deleted and recreated from scratch.
D. The log file rolls over and the last used log is overwritten.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://documentation.b2c.commercecloud.salesforce.com/DOC2/index.jsp?topic=%
2Fcom.demandware.dochelp%2FSiteDevelopment%2FUnderstandingLogFiles.html

QUESTION 3
Which line of code creates a content slot that can be included on homepage.isml to display on the home page?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A Digital Developer selects “Show Orderable Products Only” in the Search > Search Preferences Business Manager module.
Which business goal does this accomplish?

A. Exclude products from search results if Available to Sell (ATS) = 0.
B. Exclude back-ordered products from showing on the website.
C. Block displaying the product detail page if Available to Sell (ATS) = 0.
D. Exclude pre-order products from search results.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Universal Containers created a site export file from staging in the global export directory.
How should the Digital Developer update their sandbox using this staging site export file?

A. Perform a data replication from staging.
B. Use the Site Development > Site Import & Export Business Manager module.
C. Download the site export file and use UX Studio to transfer the data to the sandbox.
D. Use the Site Development > Import & Export Business Manager module.

Correct Answer: B
 
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