Tuesday, March 31, 2020

IIBA CCBA Certification of Capability in Business Analysis Exam

CCBA Eligibility

To earn the CCBA designation, candidates must:
Complete a minimum of 3,750 hours of Business Analysis work experience in the last 7 years.
Within these 3750 minimum hours required, a minimum of 900 hours must be completed in each of 2 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas OR, a minimum of 500 hours must be completed in each of 4 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas.
Complete a minimum of 21 hours of Professional Development within the last 4 years.
Provide references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.

CCBA Competencies

Is CCBA for you?
The CCBA certificate is for:

Individuals with an ECBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers, Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and Designers


QUESTION 1
You are currently working on creating the activity list for an initiative in your organization. What characteristic must be assigned to each task in your task list?

A. Procurement needs
B. Risk level
C. Unique number
D. Roles and responsibilities

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Each task in the task list should have a unique number to identify the specific task and it should have a description of what the task is.
Answer: B is incorrect. The risk level is not associated with the task list.
Answer: D is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are not included directly in the task list.
Answer: A is incorrect. Procurement needs are not included in the task list.

QUESTION 2
Shelly is the business analyst for her organization and she's working with Thomas to review the business
requirements. They are discussing the identified requirements, how the requirements will transition to the
operations, and the longevity of the solution. Thomas is concerned that the identified requirements may not
map to the desired future state of the organization. What business analysis task is Shelly facilitating in this scenario?

A. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition
B. Requirements quality assurance
C. Validate requirements
D. Stakeholder management

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Shelly and Thomas are performing the validate requirements task. This task helps to ensure that the
requirements map to the business goals and objectives, resolve the issue, and predict the longevity of the requirements to satisfy business needs.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is not a business analysis task called requirements quality assurance.
Answer: A is incorrect. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition is a task to ensure that the requirements are
clear and precise enough to create tests and inspect to know that the work has been completed.
Answer: D is incorrect. Stakeholder management is the management of stakeholders' issues, conflicts,
queries, concerns, threats, and perceived threats about the requirements.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are documented approaches to the business analysis work? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

A. Deming's Quality Circle
B. Lean
C. Six Sigma
D. Waterfall approach

Correct Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
The waterfall approach, lean, and Six Sigma are the valid answer for business analysis approaches.
Answer: A is incorrect. Deming's Quality Circle describes the quality management approach of plan, do, check, and act. This isn't a business analysis approach.

QUESTION 4
You are the business analyst for your organization and working with the stakeholders to prioritize the
requirements. The stakeholders are concerned about the financial impact of the requirements should some of
them fail during the implementation. You would like to rank the risk tolerance of the stakeholders based on
their comments about the solution and the requirements. The following are the three categories of risk
tolerance associated with the stakeholders except for which one?

A. Neutrality
B. Mitigation
C. Risk-seeking
D. Risk-aversion

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Mitigation is a risk response that seeks to lower the risk's probability and/or impact. It is not one of the three categories of risk tolerance.

QUESTION 5
Tracy is a business analyst for her organization and she's gathered and identified the needed requirements for
the solution scope. What must Tracy do before she can begin managing the requirements? Choose the best answer.

A. Tracy must decompose the requirements in WBS.
B. Tracy must create cost-benefits analysis of each requirement to manage the benefits first.
C. Tracy must identify roles, responsibilities, and owners of the requirements to fully manage the requirements.
D. Tracy must communicate the requirements to the stakeholders for their consent and approval.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Requirements must be communicated before they are managed. Tracy must communicate the requirements to
the stakeholders for their consent and approval before managing the requirements.
Answer: A is incorrect. Before Tracy decomposes the requirements, she should have the approval of the stakeholders.
Answer: B is incorrect. To begin managing the requirements, Tracy needs the approval and consent of the stakeholders.
Answer: C is incorrect. This isn't a valid statement, as the best thing to do is to gain the approval of the stakeholders first.
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Thursday, March 19, 2020

300-735 SAUTO Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions (SAUTO)

This exam tests your knowledge of implementing security automated solutions, including:
Programming concepts
RESTful APIs
Data models
Protocols
Firewalls
Web
DNS
Cloud and email security
ISE

Exam Description
The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist - Security Automation and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts, RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git (add, clone, push, commit, diff, branching, and merging conflict)
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes, conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible and Puppet for automating security platforms

2.1 Describe the event streaming capabilities of Firepower Management Center eStreamer API
2.2 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
2.2.a Firepower (Firepower Management Center and Firepower Device Management)
2.2.b ISE
2.2.c pxGRID
2.2.d Stealthwatch Enterprise
2.3 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies using Firepower Management Center API
2.4 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies using Firepower Threat Defense API (also known as Firepower Device Manager API)
2.5 Construct a Python script for pxGrid to retrieve information such as endpoint device type, network policy and security telemetry
2.6 Construct API requests using Stealthwatch API
2.6.a perform configuration modifications
2.6.b generate rich reports

3.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
3.1.a Umbrella Investigate APIs
3.1.b AMP for endpoints APIs
3.1.c ThreatGRID API
3.2 Construct an Umbrella Investigate API request
3.3 Construct AMP for endpoints API requests for event, computer, and policies
3.4 Construct ThreatGRID APIs request for search, sample feeds, IoC feeds, and threat disposition

4.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
4.1.a Umbrella reporting and enforcement APIs
4.1.b Stealthwatch cloud APIs
4.1.c Cisco Security Management Appliance APIs

4.2 Construct Stealthwatch cloud API request for reporting
4.3 Construct an Umbrella Reporting and Enforcement API request
4.4 Construct a report using Cisco Security Management Appliance API request (email and web)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is typically used to manage a Cisco router in-band? (Select the best answer.)

A. a VTY port
B. a serial port
C. a console port
D. an auxiliary port

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following enables the validation of both user and device credentials in a single EAP transaction? (Select the best answer.)

A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-FAST with EAP chaining
D. EAP-MD5

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following features protects the control plane by classifying traffic into three separate control plane subinterfaces? (Select the best answer.)

A. CoPP
B. CPPr
C. RBAC
D. uRPF

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an outputspreading technique that spammers use to manipulate reputation scores and defeat filters? (Select the best answer.)

A. phishing
B. snowshoe spam
C. waterfalling
D. listwashing

Correct Answer: B
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Tuesday, March 17, 2020

ITIL-4-FOUNDATION ITIL 4 Foundation Exam

Course Description
The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the most widely accepted approach to IT service management in the world. ITIL is a best practice framework that has been drawn from both the public and private sectors internationally. It describes how IT resources should be organized to deliver business value, documenting the processes, functions and roles of IT Service Management (ITSM). The focus of a business should move from simply managing the company’s IT to making IT truly productive by helping the business achieve its strategic goals. ITIL certification helps organizations fulfill this goal by providing guidelines for establishing governance standards and enhancing the alignment between business and its IT processes.

Audience: ITIL certification is most suited for IT Managers, System Analysts, Quality Analysts, System Administrators, Operations Managers, and Database Administrators.

Course Objectives
Understand and implement IT Service Management best practices, key concepts, principles, and process models required for clearing the ITIL Foundation certification exam
Gain understanding of scope, purpose, and objective of, service strategy, service transition, service design, service operations, and Continual Service Improvement
Apply ITIL concepts, tools and techniques to improve effectiveness and efficiency of business for optimizing customer experience
Learn to automate standard tasks and apply lean principles to enhance efficiency of IT Service Management processes in this ITIL 2011 foundation training
Centralize processes and teams and save costs using well defined fit-for-use and fit-for purpose processes
ITIL Foundation course provides participants a complete structure with a set of procedures to help them take a proactive approach in improving business performance with the help of IT.

ITIL Foundation Definition:
ITIL Foundation is a certification based on ITIL practices for IT Service Management. The Foundation certification aims to give professionals an understanding of the guidelines and framework.

Context: Overview
ITIL Foundation is designed to give professionals a basic understanding of the ITIL framework. It focuses on awareness and comprehension rather than being able to apply ITIL principles. The basics of IT Service Management as a practice are covered as is the ITIL lifecycle.

Topics
Some of the topics covered in ITIL Foundation include:
IT Service Management as a practice
ITIL Service Cycle
Technology and architecture
Competence and training
The certification also covers processes, models, functions, and roles. The learning objectives focus on knowing and understanding key terms and definitions.
To become certified for ITIL Foundation, a professional needs to sit the ITIL Foundation exam which consists of 40 multiple choice questions. A certificate is awarded when the professional correctly answers 65% of the questions. The exam can be done as a conclusion to classroom training or it can be prepared for through self-study.

Related Certifications:
There are many ways to further extend your contextual knowledge of IT Service Management to broaden your understanding. One of these ways is to build on your ITIL knowledge with a VeriSM™ certification. The VeriSM™ Plus module offers professionals knowledge of new and emerging technologies. This certification ensures that professionals have a grasp of the progessive practices and innovative technologies that are now emerging rapidly as a consequence of digital transformation.

QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving services?

A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?

A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a standard change?

A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?

A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and implementation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication of service requests and incidents?

A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management

Correct Answer: B

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Monday, March 16, 2020

2V0-31.19 Professional VMware vRealize Automation 7.6 Exam

VMware 2V0-31.19 Exam Topics:

2019 Exam Details

The Professional VMware vRealize Automation 7.6 Exam (2V0-31.19), which leads to the VMware Certified Professional – Cloud Management and Automation 2020 certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 120 minutes, which includes a five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers. Actual exam time is 115 minutes. Exam Delivery This is a proctored exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers, world-wide. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website. Certification Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for certification attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website. Minimally Qualified Candidate The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has experience working with vRealize Automation 7.6 implementations. The candidate has some foundational knowledge of both versions of NSX (NSX Data Center for vSphere and NSX-T) and intermediate knowledge of vSphere. He or she is typically infrastructure personnel capable of installing and configuring, testing, managing and troubleshooting a vRealize Automation 7.6 solution running on vSphere 6.x. The candidate possesses an understanding of basic cloud concepts including public/private/hybrid clouds, multitenancy and cloud security. The candidate is capable of using vRealize Automation to automate the deployment of workloads, vRealize Business for Cloud Standard to establish cost reporting and vRealize Orchestrator to create and manage common workflows. The candidate has foundational knowledge of how to maintain and update vRealize Automation thorough vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager. Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.

Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

If a section is missing from the list below, please note it is because the exam has no testable objectives for that section. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in the Exam
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies - There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions - There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 3- Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup - There are no testable objectives for this section
Objective 4.1 - Install vRealize Automation
Objective 4.2 - Create and Manage Tenants
Objective 4.3 - Create and Manage Directories
Objective 4.4 - Create and Manage Business Groups
Objective 4.5 - Manage User and Group Role Assignments
Objective 4.6 - Integrate vRealize Business for Cloud Standard with vRealize Automation
Objective 4.7 - Create and Manage VMware Endpoints
Objective 4.8 - Create and Manage Cloud Endpoints
Objective 4.9 - Create and Manage Fabric Groups, Reservations and Network Profiles
Objective 4.10 - Create, Configure and Manage Active Directory Policies
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades
Objective 5.1 - Maintain and Update vRealize Automation using vRealize Lifecycle Manager
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Troubleshoot Common vRealize Automation Installation and Configuration Errors
Objective 6.2 - Identify the Correct Log to Troubleshoot a Given vRealize Automation Error
Objective 6.3 - Configure the Health Check Feature on vRealize Automation
Objective 6.4 - Troubleshoot Provisioning Errors
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Create, Modify and Publish single- and multi-machine Blueprints Based on a Given Design
Objective 7.2 - Create and Manage XaaS Blueprints with Custom Resource Mappings
Objective 7.3 - Create and Manage Custom Forms for a Blueprint
Objective 7.4 - Use Software Components in Blueprints
Objective 7.5 - Export and Import Blueprints
Objective 7.6 - Create and Manage NSX Objects in a Blueprint
Objective 7.7 - Configure a Blueprint to Deploy from OVF
Objective 7.8 - Create and Manage Entitlements
Objective 7.9 - Create and Manage Approval Policies
Objective 7.10 - Manage the vRealize Automation Catalog
Objective 7.11 - Provision Resources from a vRealize Automation Catalog
Objective 7.12 - Perform Locate and Reclamation of Resources Based on Provided Criteria
Objective 7.13 - Manage Provisioned Workloads (Day 2 Actions)
Objective 7.14 - Perform Bulk Imports
Objective 7.15 - Create and Manage Event Broker Subscriptions
Objective 7.16 - Install and Configure Plugins and Packages in vRealize Orchestrator
Objective 7.17 - Modify and Run Basic vRealize Orchestrator Workflows
Objective 7.18 - Configure Authentication for vRealize Orchestrator
Objective 7.19 - Maintain and Renew Certificates

QUESTION 1
A new Windows operating system machine blueprint is created and is ready to be added to a new service catalog.
Which step must be performed for the catalog item to be visible to business users?

A. Entitle the blueprint with all appropriate actions.
B. Publish the blueprint.
C. Entitle a business user to add the blueprint to the catalog.
D. Add the catalog item to the business group’s reservation.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A vRealize Orchestrator administrator is tasked with creating a workflow that processes sensitive information
that is subject to auditing. All workflow messages must be stored in the vRealize Orchestrator database.
How can the administrator ensure that all log messages generated by the workflow are stored in the database?

A. Configure a DEBUG level for the vRealize Orchestrator server.
B. Use System.log() when printing out messages.
C. Configure SQL plugin to write to the database directly.
D. Use Server.log() when printing out messages.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A system administrator created a tenant with URL name “fin” for the finance team. The fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the appliance is vra.rainpole.local.
What is the correct URL to log in to the finance tenant?

A. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/fin
B. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/finance
C. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/fin
D. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/finance

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What can be used in custom forms to prevent a user from entering too large a value (such as too much memory for a virtual machine)?

A. Constraints for a field
B. Regular expression for a field
C. Quotas for a field
D. Limitations for a field

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An administrator configures a pre-approval event subscription to run vRealize Orchestrator workflow. The
workflow does not run when a machine that matches the defined criteria is requested in the service catalog.
What can the administrator do to resolve this issue?

A. Verify that approvers have executed the approve option.
B. Verify that the workflow subscription is published.
C. Verify that approvers belong to specific users and groups.
D. Verify that the approval policy is associated with the correct resource action.

Answer: B
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Monday, March 9, 2020

CIS-HR Certified Implementation Specialist-Human Resources Exam

Certified Implementation Certified Implementation Certified Implementation Certified Implementation

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – HR Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation Specialist – HR certified.

Exam Purpose
The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow Human Resources suite of applications.

Exam Audience
The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Certified Implementer for the ServiceNow HR application.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path: Human Resources Service Delivery (HRSD) Implementer
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• Human Resources (HR) Fundamentals
• Human Resources (HR) Implementation - Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a nontransferable voucher code to register for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam
Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow also recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.

ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
o Micro-certification – ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
• Working with Restricted Caller Access Records for Human Resources

Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• General familiarity with general industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms
• Practical knowledge about Human Resources processes and some knowledge of IT Service Request workflows is also helpful
• Three to six months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least one ServiceNow HR deployment project
Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content.
Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Describe and use the ServiceNow HR System Architecture 37%
Plugins
HR Table Structure
Application Scoping
2 Configure and Implement ServiceNow Core HR Applications and Employee Service Center 40%
Users, Groups, Skills, and Roles
Assignment Rules
HR Services, HR Catalog Items, and Record Producers
HR Service Portal Branding

Describe and Use Platform, Role, and Contextual Security
16% Describe how Platform, Role, and Contextual Security are Used in ServiceNow
Understand how the Delegated Developer role works
Understand how to Configure Security Options to Protect HR Data
Total
100%
Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the Human Resources (HR) Implementation training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the prerequisite training path is nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.

NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately 45 questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again up to three more times for a cost of $75.

QUESTION 1
An HR Admin without the System Admin role can do what? (Choose three.)

A. Grant roles to users or groups
B. Modify the HR Administration > Properties
C. Reset user passwords
D. Create HR Criteria
E. Configure business rules
F. Add users to groups

Correct Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION 2
After the HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin] role has been removed from the Admin role, how may a user with only the Admin role add members to HR groups?

A. The Admin must elevate their role to security_admin to add members to HR groups.
B. The Admin follows the same process as with any group membership change.
C. The Admin can no longer add members to HR groups.
D. The Admin must impersonate an HR Admin to add members to HR groups.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
In the Create Bulk Cases module, which Filter by options are available in the dropdown? (Choose four.)

A. Document Template
B. Upload File
C. HR Service Template
D. User Criteria
E. HR Template
F. HR Profiles
G. HR Criteria

Correct Answer: B,D,F,G


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MB-901 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Exam

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to understand Microsoft Dynamics 365; artificial intelligence (AI); mixed reality (MR); the Power Platform; cloud concepts; cloud security; role-based security in Dynamics 365; Common Data Service; data management framework; Dynamics 365 reporting; Dynamics 365 integrations; and cloud deployment.

This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.

Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Audience Profile
This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%)
Describe integration capabilities
• integration across Dynamics 365 apps
• integration across Microsoft products
• integration with third-party apps
• custom integrations in Dynamics 365

Describe Dynamics 365 cloud security
• encryption
• authentication
• data ownership
• data center access
• SSO
• Data loss protection (DLP)
• industry standard certifications (GDPR, etc)

Understand the benefits of role based security
• app role-based security
• leveraging security roles
• streamlined user experience
• out-of-the-box security roles

Identify the business value of the Microsoft cloud
• Azure features used by Dynamics 365
• PaaS
• Life Cycle Services (LCS)

Understand the use of Power Platform in Dynamics 365
• Power Apps
• Power BI
• Power Automate
• AI Builder
• Common Data Service

Understand the benefits of the Common Data Service
• analytics
• extensibility
• interoperability
• consistency

Identify Dynamics 365 reporting capabilities
• built in reporting
• role-based reporting
• extensible reporting

Understand AI and Mixed Reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%)
Leverage AI for data insights
• fraud protection
• virtual agents
• sales insights
• customer insights
• relationship insights
• customer service insights

Leverage mixed reality
• remote assist
• guides
• layouts

Understand model-driven apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales

• dynamics 365 sales automation
• pipeline management
• contact management
• customer requests and follow up
• LinkedIn Sales Navigator

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Marketing
• lead generation and qualifications
• customer journey
• surveys
• landing pages
• segmentation
• event management
• dynamics 365 for marketing

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Field Service
• Resource Scheduling Optimization (RSO)
• Connected Field Service
• service resource scheduling
• proactive customer service
• Field Service Mobile

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Service
• account management
• omni channel service
• case life cycle
• knowledge articles

Understand Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance
• General Ledger
• Accounts Payable
• Accounts Receivable
• project accounting
• budgeting
• global attributes
• end to end business processes
• real time cash flow visibility
• enterprise asset management

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Human Resources
• employee self-service
• personnel management
• benefits management
• employee development

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Business Central
• finance
• supply chain
• project management
• sales and service
• budgeting
• when to use Business Central vs other Dynamics 365 products

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management
• project accounting
• modernize operations
• procurement and sourcing
• manufacturing
• warehouse management
• master planning
• product information

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Commerce
• retail capability
• Channel Management
• Point of Sale (POS)
• mobile commerce

QUESTION 1
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the cloud.
You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?

A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts

Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 3
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows
sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile
devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A
 
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Monday, March 2, 2020

70-537 Microsoft Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack Exam

Published: January 31, 2018
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Azure
Credit toward certification: MCSA, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

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On January 14, 2020, this exam was updated. To learn more about these changes and how they affect the skills measured, please download and review the exam 70-537 change document.

Deploying and Integrating an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%)
Build test environments by using the Azure Stack Hub Development Kit (ASDK).
This objective may include but is not limited to: use PowerShell commands; install updated ASDK; troubleshoot failed installs; post-deployment registration
Configure identity and PKI for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: integrate Azure Stack Hub with AD FS, create custom RBAC roles for Azure Stack registration, validate Azure identity, validate AD FS integaration, validate graph integration, generate PKI certificates, validate PKI certificates, remediate PKI certificates
Configure DNS for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure external DNS name resolution from within Azure Stack Hub; configure Azure Stack Hub DNS names from outside Azure Stack Hub
Configure connectivity for data center integration.
This objective may include but is not limited to: manage firewall ports needed at the edge; configure connectivity to the data center; install and renew certificates for public endpoints, connect to Azure by using ExpressRoute
Connect to and perform API-based administration on Azure Stack Hub.
This objective may include but is not limited to: connect to the stack by using PowerShell; configure client certificates; configure firewall to support remote administration; establish RBAC roles for the Azure Stack Hub fabric; create subscriptions for end users

Configuring PaaS and IaaS for an Azure Stack Hub Environment (25-30%)
Configure and administer the App Service resource provider.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure system; configure source control; configure worker tiers; configure subscription quotas; scale worker tiers and App Service infrastructure roles; add custom software; configure Azure Stack Hub networking security
Configure and administer database resource providers.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure and administer the SQL adapter; configure and administer the MySQL adapter; set up SKUs; set up additional hosting capacity
Configure and administer IaaS services.
This objective may include but is not limited to: implement virtual machine images; prepare Linux and Windows images; prepare a custom image; upload an image

Providing Services to and Enabling DevOps for Azure Stack Hub Users (25-30%)
Create and manage quotas, plans, and offers.
This objective may include but is not limited to: create quotas; configure plans; configure offers; configure delegated offers; create add-on plans
Manage tenants and users.
This objective may include but is not limited to: configure multi-tenancy in Azure Stack; remove tenants; manage authentication and authorization; establish RBAC roles for the user space
Manage the Azure Marketplace.
This objective may include but is not limited to: enable Azure Marketplace on Azure Stack Hub; plan new packages; create and publish new packages; download Azure Marketplace items
Enable DevOps for users.
This objective may include but is not limited to: enable version control for users; enable CLI for users; manage ARM templates; deploy ARM templates; debug ARM templates; use Azure DevOps to connect to Azure Stack Hub; use continuous integration and continuous deployment to automate a pipeline that targets Azure Stack Hub, configure app identity to access resources using Azure AD and AD FS service principals

Maintaining and Monitoring an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%)
Plan and implement a backup-recovery and a disaster-recovery solution.
This objective may include but is not limited to: back up Azure Stack Hub infrastructure services; perform cloud recovery of Azure Stack Hub, replicate and fail over Azure Stack Hub VMs to Azure; back up and restore PaaS resource data; back up and restore backup and restore of user Azure Stack Hub VM-OS, disks, volumes, and apps
Manage and monitor capacity, performance, updates, and alerts.
This objective may include but is not limited to: manage storage; monitor available storage; integrate existing monitoring services; manage public IP address ranges; monitor infrastructure component health; monitor Azure Stack Hub memory, public IP addresses, and storage user consumption; apply updates; update system firmware; review and react to alerts; configure external auditing and syslog forwarding; replace hardware
Manage usage reporting and log collection.
This objective may include but is not limited to: provide access to the usage database; test usage by using the ASDK; collect the usage data by using the Provider Resource Usage API and the Tenant Resource Usage API; investigate the usage time versus the reported time

Instructor-led training
Course 20537: Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack

Online training
INF240x: Configuring and Operating Microsoft Azure Stack

Self-paced training
Azure Stack Documentation
Azure Stack Development Kit (free!)

Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are Azure administrators and Azure Stack Hub operators who use Azure Stack Hub to provide cloud services to their end users or customers from within their own data center.

Candidates for this exam should have significant experience managing and operating Azure Stack Hub environments. Candidates should have a strong understanding of Azure as well as some knowledge of virtualization, networking, and identity management. Candidates should also understand how Azure Stack Hub enables DevOps processes and the hybrid development model.

Candidates for this exam are expected to demonstrate the ability to plan, deploy, package, update, and maintain the Azure Stack Hub infrastructure. Candidates must also demonstrate the ability to offer hybrid cloud resources and requested services, and to manage infrastructure as a service (IaaS) and platform as a service (PaaS).

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Stack integrated system in the perimeter network.
You need to ensure that users in the Internet can access Azure Stack Storage blobs.
Which TCP ports should you open on the firewall?

A. 20 and 21
B. 137 only
C. 80 and 443
D. 445 and 5445

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
You establish a PowerShell session to a privileged endpoint, and you run several commands.
You need to ensure that logs of the session activity are exported to a file share.
Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Exit
B. Clear-Host
C. Out-Default
D. Close-PrivilegedEndpoint
E. Exit-PSSession

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system that uses an external domain name of west.fabrikam.com
Currently, tenant users access the system internally.
You need to create a SSL certificate for the publication of externally accessible endpoints. The solution must
ensure that tenant users can upload VHD files to Azure Stack remotely.
Which two names should you include in the certificate? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. adminmanagement.west.fabrikam.com
B. *.west.fabrikam.com
C. *.blob.west.fabrikam.com
D. adminportal.west.fabrikam.com
E. *.trafficmanager.west.fabrikam.com

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system.
You implement federation between adatum.com and Azure Stack.
You need to ensure that a user named admin01@adatum.com can manage Azure Stack from the Azure Stack administrator portal.
Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Set-ServiceAdminOwner
B. Set-AzsUserSubscription
C. New-CloudAdminUser
D. Set-CloudAdminPassword

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
What are three possible types of records that you can create in Azure Stack DNS? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. SRV
B. MX
C. PTR
D. NSEC
E. AAAA

Answer: A,B,C


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