Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS) certifications enable professionals to target specific technologies and to distinguish themselves by demonstrating in-depth knowledge and expertise in their specialized technologies. more at http://www.certkingdom.com
A great way to start the Juniper Networks Certified Design Specialist
Security (JNCDS-SEC) preparation is to begin by properly appreciating the role
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This study guide is an instrument to get you on the same page with Juniper and
understand the nature of the Juniper JNCDS Security exam.
Our team of experts has composed this Juniper JN0-1331 exam preparation guide to
provide the overview about Juniper Security Design Specialist exam, study
material, sample questions, practice exam and ways to interpret the exam
objectives to help you assess your readiness for the Juniper JNCDS-SEC exam by
identifying prerequisite areas of knowledge. We recommend you to refer the
simulation questions and practice test listed in this guide to determine what
type of questions will be asked and the level of difficulty that could be tested
in the Juniper JNCDS Security certification exam.
Juniper JN0-1331 Exam Overview: Security Design Specialist
Exam Number JN0-1331 JNCDS-SEC
Exam Price $300 USD
Duration 90 minutes
Number of Questions 65
Passing Score Variable (60-70% Approx.)
Recommended Training Juniper Networks Design - Security (JND-SEC)
Exam Registration PEARSON VUE
Sample Questions Juniper JN0-1331 Sample Questions
Practice Exam Juniper Networks Certified Design Specialist Security Practice
Test
Juniper JN0-1331 Exam Topics:
Section Objectives
Fundamental Security Concepts Describe the various tenets of common security
features - Access control lists
- Stateful security policies
- ALG’s
- IPS
- UTM
- NAT
- IPsec
- Next-generation firewall
- Screen
Securing the Campus or Branch Describe the security design considerations
within a campus or branch network - Network segmentation (e.g., SDSN)
- Network access
- Wireless
- 802.1X
- Remote access VPN’s
- Remote access VPN’s
- NAT
- End-to-end security
- BYOD
Securing the Enterprise WAN Describe the security design considerations for
an enterprise WAN - Internet edge security design principles
- WAN aggregation
- Private WAN
- VPNs
Securing the Service Provider WAN Describe the security design considerations
for a service provider WAN - DoS/DDos attacks
- Securing the control plane
- Internet security
- CG-NAT
Securing the Data Center Describe the security design considerations in a
data center - Securing data center interconnects
- Securing North-South flows
- Securing East-West flows
- Virtual routers
Security Automation and Management
Describe the design considerations for security management - Securing the individual devices
- Centralized security
- Junos Space management platform
- Junos Space Security Director and Log Director
- Juniper Secure Analytics
Describe the design considerations for automating security.
- Simplifying deployment
- On-box automation
- Off-box automation
Security Virtualization Describe the security design considerations for a
virtualized environment - NFV
- Service chaining
- Micro-segmentation
- vSRX
High Availability Describe the design considerations of high availability in
a secure networks - Physical high availability
- Virtual high availability
- Asymmetrical traffic handling
- Chassis clustering
Juniper JNCDS-SEC Exam Description:
The Juniper Networks Certification Program (JNCP) Design Track allows
participants to demonstrate competence with Juniper Networks design principles
and associated technologies. Successful candidates demonstrate thorough
understanding of best practices, theory, and design principles for the network.
QUESTION 1
You are deploying Security Director with the logging and reporting functionality
for VMs that use SSDs. You
expect to have approximately 20,000 events per second of logging in your
network.
In this scenario, what is the minimum number of logging and reporting devices
that should be used?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 You are concerned about users attacking the publicly accessible servers in
your data center through
encrypted channels. You want to block these attacks using your SRX Series
devices.
In this scenario, which two features should you use? (Choose two.)
A. Sky ATP
B. IPS
C. SSL forward proxy
D. SSL reverse proxy
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3 Your customer needs help designing a single solution to protect their
combination of various Junos network
devices from unauthorized management access.
Which Junos OS feature will provide this protection?
A. Use a firewall filter applied to the fxp0 interface
B. Use a security policy with the destination of the junos-host zone
C. Use the management zone host-inbound-traffic feature
D. Use a firewall filter applied to the lo0 interface
Certification Overview This certification validates the ability to perform basic skill level tasks
in installing, configuring, maintaining and troubleshooting Dell EMC Networking
products
Certification Requirements To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Pass the following Exam
• DEA-5TT1 Associate - Networking Exam
Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of December 14, 2018.
Other Certification Recommendations This certification will qualify towards the following Specialist level
certifications in the Dell EMC Proven Professional Program
• Specialist – Infrastructure Security Version 1.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Campus Networking Version 1.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Data Center Networking Version 1.0
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements.
*Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the
latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level
requirement.
Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate - Networking track.
This exam focuses on basic Networking foundational skills and portfolio
introduction.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in
preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the
topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a
practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored
exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A
passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the
certification exam.
Products Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited
to:
• Dell EMC Networking Switches
Exam Topics Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
Networks – The Basics (7%)
• Explain the purpose and function of network devices such as switches and
routers, WANs and LANs, and common Campus and Datacenter topologies
• Explain the purpose and basic operations of the OSI model
• Describe the concepts and use cases for Layer 2 - Data Link Layer, Discovery
protocols
Ethernet Networking (7%) • Describe Ethernet networking
• Describe the standards of how Ethernet operates and how addressing is used to
move data on the Ethernet network
Switching Fundamentals and Creating a Switched Network (23%) • Explain the reason for network switching and the process of moving frames
within a switched network
• Explain how to differentiate between a broadcast domain and collision domain
• Explain how to select cabling and the cables that are certified for network
connectivity
• Describe the concepts of VLANs, Spanning-Tree protocol, and Link Aggregation
and how each functions within the network
Internet Protocol v4 and v6 (14%) • Identify and describe the differences between private and public IP
addressing, and describe classful and CIDR addressing
• Describe IPv4 addressing and explain the process of using IPv4 in the network
• Describe IPv6 addressing and explain the process of using IPv6 in the network
Transport Layer (7%)
• Describe the function of the Transport layers, how it supports host-to-host
connectivity, and protocols used by the Transport layers and their use cases
IP Routing Technologies and Routing Protocols (15%) • Describe basic routing concepts and explain how to interpret a routing
table
• Identify and describe the differences between static and dynamic routing
• Identify and describe the classifications of routing protocols and how they
are used to route within and between autonomous systems
• Explain the routing process used by RIPv2, OSPF, and BGP (link state and
distance vector routing) routing protocols
IP and Network Services (7%) • Describe the DHCP and NTP service and explain the configuration steps
• Describe Access Control Lists (ACLs) and Network Address Translation
Security, Authentication, and ACLs (3%)
• Describe the options and processes of securing access to the network
Switch Stacking, Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter, and Modular Switch Portfolio
(10%) • Describe the key concepts of stacking and the hardware required to
configure stacking using OS 6, OS 9, and OS 10
• Describe the switch models that are part of the Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter,
and Modular Switch portfolio
Dell EMC Switch Software, Configuration, and Management (7%) Explain how software is used to configure and manage Dell EMC switches, and
describe the steps to complete an initial switch configuration
Recommended Training The following curriculum is recommended for candidates preparing to take
this exam.
QUESTION 1
What are Network Address Translation (NAT) inside global addresses?
A. Addresses used by NAT router when sending frames to devices on the local
network
B. Public IP addresses used by the local network to communicate with the
Internet
C. Private IP addresses used by the local network
D. Pubic addresses used by other networks outside of the local network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which topology is considered a best practice when stacking switches?
A. Ring
B. Cascade
C. Serial
D. Daisy-chain
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which option is used to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) to
provide one-to-one mapping between local and global addresses?
A. Outside source static
B. Overload
C. Inside source static
D. PAT
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What is the valid range assigned to a client during a TCP connection?
A. 20 - 25
B. 443 - 1000
C. 1023 - 2024
D. 40000 - 65535
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QUESTION 1 The failure of install multipath is mostly due to compatibility, which
components mainly needs to consider compatible when install multipath? (Select
three Answers)
A. with OS specific version
B. with HBA card
C. server system hard disk drive
D. with iSCSI initiator software
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 2 How to troubleshooting whether there is impact performance of failure hard
disk in storage system (slow)?
A. under CLI check RAID LUN state, whether if it is abnormal
B. in storage debug mode, through the command of iostat –x –d 1 to check IO of
storage system, the average service time of some disk (svctm) over a period of
time is obviously more than other disk, %util is close to 100%, and other disk
are free, can judge the hard disk performance
C. on host side check LUN IO state under multipath
D. check the link state in host side and ISM storage interface
Answer: B
QUESTION 3 About storage network management software, which description is wrong?
A. equipment management can manage storage array device
B. business management, business flow management
C. topology display, visual display device of the current topology connection
status
D. DHA service management, hard disk health data/performance data
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 For backup and disaster, what size of striping depth are recommended the
common used?
A. 8K
B. 16K-128K
C. 64K
D. more than 64K
Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following command can check kernel version information in linux
system?
Exam ID HPE0-V12
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 15 minutes
Exam length 50 questions
Passing score 62%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Designing HPE Hybrid Cloud Solutions, Rev. 19.41
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta
test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these
comments as part of our continuous improvement process.
Exam description This exam tests the candidate's ability to display competency when
architecting cloud solutions, including experience with multi-cloud technologies
and cloud deployment models. It also includes the ability to use automation,
management, and orchestration tools to optimize resiliency, availability,
performance, deployment, and manageability.
Ideal candidate for this exam This certification is targeted to solution architects who have experience
designing and implementing a complex cloud solution and want to validate their
skills to leverage HPE solutions in multi-site environments. Candidates may
typically define business needs and propose solutions. Candidates may also
deploy the solution.
Exam contents This exam has 50 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:
Discrete Option Multiple Choice
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before
you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the
exam.
Visit HPE Press for additional reference materials, study guides, practice
tests, and HPE books.
What to Expect with Discrete Option Multiple Choice (DOMC) exams:
This exam uses the DOMC question format. It is quite different than traditional
multiple choice exams. It is designed to increase exam fairness, to protect exam
integrity, your exam scores and your time.
How is DOMC different?
Instead of presenting all the answer options together at one time, DOMC
questions present answer options one at a time, at random
When an answer option is presented, you select either Yes or No to indicate if
the option is correct or not. This process repeats until the question concludes
You may see more than one correct option
You may receive as few as one option for each test question or several options
Once you move forward, you may not go back and change your response to a
previous option
We created an HPE sample test to help you practice using this DOMC test format.
During registration, you will be asked to confirm that you have completed the
HPE DOMC sample test and understand how this exam will perform.
Become acquainted with DOMC:
HPE DOMC sample test
DOMC FAQs
Be sure to complete the supporting resources and review all materials and
documents before you take the exam. Successful completion of the supporting
resources alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
20% Explain the HPE Approach to Cloud Management Services, Consulting, and
Infrastructure HPE OneSphere
GreenLake Hybrid Cloud (GLHC)
HPE Cloud-Focused Consulting
Azure Stack and related HPE approaches
12% Describe Third Party and Other Cloud Technologies VMWare (NSX and VCF)
Red Hat Open Shift
Open Stack
AWS
13% Explain the purpose and use of Automation, Orchestration, and Scripting
Tools Anisible, Puppet, CHEF, Terraform
Scripting, including PowerShell, Python
HPE Developer site (DEV IO site)
HPE OneSphere
11% Desscribe Containers, including Kubernetes, Docker, and Mesophere Kubernetes, including Helm Charts
Docker
Mesosphere
11% Analyze Consumption Models Consumption
Moving Data for security, compliance, and customer needs
9% Evaluate Advanced Cloud Concepts and Protocols VXLAN, GRE, Overlay and Underlay technologies
Cloud Connectivity options
Application refactoring and oversubscription
IoT
24% Explain the Capabilities and Positioning of Cloud-Enabled HPE
Infrastructure and Services HPE OneSphere
Cloud Volumes
Cloud Bank
Azure Stack
HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank
3PAR Cloud Connect
HPE Nimble storage Cloud Ready
ProLiant for Azure Stack
Recovery Manager Central (RMC)
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist - Vulnerability Response
Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content
coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation
Specialist - Vulnerability Response certified.
Exam Purpose The Certified Implementation Specialist - Vulnerability Response exam
certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to
contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of a ServiceNow
Vulnerability Response Implementation.
Exam Audience The Certified Implementation Specialist - Vulnerability Response exam is
available to ServiceNow partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a
ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist - Vulnerability Response.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist -
Vulnerability Response exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow
training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• ServiceNow Security Operations (SecOps) Fundamentals
• Vulnerability Response (VR) Implementation - Upon completion, the candidate
will be issued a nontransferable voucher code to register for the Certified
Implementation Specialist - Vulnerability Response exam.
Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam. • ServiceNow Fundamentals (ILT)
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals (eLearning)
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation (ILT)
• CIS-Vulnerability Response Certification Test Prep
• Automated Test Framework (ATF) Fundamentals (OnDemand)
• Flow Designer Fundamentals
• IntegrationHub Fundamentals
• Mobile Development Fundamentals
• Service Portal Fundamentals
|Additional Resources In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional
resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• Orlando Vulnerability Response Documentation
• ServiceNow Security Operations Now Community Forums
• Glossary of Terms for Security Operations with Wikipedia Links
Additional Recommended Experience • Three (3) to six (6) months field experience participating in a ServiceNow
Security Incident response deployment project or maintaining the SIR application
suite in a ServiceNow instance.
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms.
Exam Scope Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics
and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills
measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each
domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of
exam content. Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Vulnerability Response Applications
and Modules
• About ServiceNow Security Operations
• Introducing Vulnerability Response
• Vulnerability
Getting Data Into Vulnerability Response • Definition of Vulnerabilities and Vulnerable Items
• Integrating with Vulnerability Scanners and Other Data Sources
• Scanner Integration and CMDB Reconciliation
3 Tools to Manage Vulnerability Response • Group Vulnerabilities for Easier Management
• Tasking for Vulnerability Remediation
• Exploit Enrichment 25%
4 Automating Vulnerability Response • Handling Vulnerability Exceptions
• Using Workflows for Process Automation
5 Vulnerability Response Data Visualization
• Data Visualization Overview: Dashboards and Reporting
• Performance Analytics
Exam Registration Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor
website using a voucher obtained by completing the training prerequisite. The
exam is available directly through the Webassessor site as a non-proctored,
60-minute exam.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam.
This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own
system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure The exam consists of (60) questions. For each question on the examination,
there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the
response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is
immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are
not provided to the candidate.
QUESTION 1
Select the three components of a Filter Condition: (Choose three.)
A. Field
B. Sum
C. Operator
D. Value
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION 2 SLAs are used to ensure VUL are processed in a timely matter. Which field is
used to determine the expected timeframe for remediating a VIT?
A. Updated
B. Remediation status
C. Remediation target
D. Closed
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What is the minimum role required to create and change Service Level
Agreements for Vulnerability Response groups?
A. sla_manager
B. admin
C. sn_vul.vulnerability_write
D. sn_vul.admin
Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Changes made within a named Update Set in a different application scope:
A. Will be captured
B. Will throw errors
C. Will not be captured
D. Will be partially captured
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 ServiceNow Vulnerability Response tables typically start with which prefix?
Number of questions: 63
Number of questions to pass: 38
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam is intended for IBM Spectrum Virtualize V8.3.1 administrators who are
familiar with the product features and capabilities. The administrator can plan
an installation, perform the installation, upgrade or expand an existing system,
manage daily operations, and monitor performance and system operation.
IBM Spectrum Virtualize V8.3.1 Administrator 100%
Section 1: Planning 1.1 Determine the customer’s environment for Spectrum Virtualize.
1.2 Verify limitations and restrictions
1.3 Perform performance modeling using Storage Modeller (StorM)
1.4 Determine type of storage system connectivity being externally virtualized
1.5 Evaluate data reduction use and capabilities within an organization’s
storage infrastructure.
1.6 Describe IBM Spectrum Virtualize clustering capabilities.
1.7 Configure storage for IBM Power iSeries
1.8 Verify the pre-sale and pre-install checklist (Impact) Technical Delivery
Assessment (TDA)
Section 2: Implementation 2.1 Perform basic configuration and setup.
2.2 Configure Network Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
2.3 Ensure an organization’s security requirements will be satisfied by
encryption enablement.
2.4 Externally virtualize storage
2.5 Administer storage pools.
2.6 Administer arrays
2.7 Enable/disable Volume protection mode-by pool
2.8 Administer volumes
2.9 Set up host.
Section 3: Manage and Use IBM Spectrum Virtualize 3.1 Enable Quality of Service (QOS) capabilities.
3.2 Administer the multi-tenancy function
3.3 Enable and monitor Easy Tier
3.4 Integrate with VMware
3.5 Migrate volumes
3.6 Perform code upgrades
3.7 Describe process for node replacement
3.8 Perform Storage management and performance monitoring (Virtual Storage
Center)
3.9 Describe the process for implementing IBM Spectrum Virtualize for Public
Cloud.
Section 4: Copy Services: FlashCopy 4.1 Describe use cases for snapshots, clones, backups including consistency
groups
4.2 Manage snapshots, clones, backups, and consistency groups
4.3 Describe Transparent Cloud Tiering - encryption and compression
Section 5: Copy Services-Replication 5.1 Determine high availability options including stretched cluster,
Hyperswap, spare node
5.2 Calculate bandwidth requirements for replication
5.3 Determine replication connectivity - ip, FCIP, Fibre Channel, compression
5.4 Describe copy services methods and capabilities available for replication
and availability solution options.
5.5 Manage metro-mirror, global mirror, global mirror with change volume
including consistency groups; Sync rates
5.6 Implement disaster recovery to public cloud (IBM Spectrum Virtualize for
Public Cloud)
Number of questions: 63
Number of questions to pass: 38
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam is intended for IBM Spectrum Virtualize V8.3.1 administrators who are
familiar with the product features and capabilities. The administrator can plan
an installation, perform the installation, upgrade or expand an existing system,
manage daily operations, and monitor performance and system operation.
IBM Spectrum Virtualize V8.3.1 Administrator 100%
Section 1: Planning 1.1 Determine the customer’s environment for Spectrum Virtualize.
1.2 Verify limitations and restrictions
1.3 Perform performance modeling using Storage Modeller (StorM)
1.4 Determine type of storage system connectivity being externally virtualized
1.5 Evaluate data reduction use and capabilities within an organization’s
storage infrastructure.
1.6 Describe IBM Spectrum Virtualize clustering capabilities.
1.7 Configure storage for IBM Power iSeries
1.8 Verify the pre-sale and pre-install checklist (Impact) Technical Delivery
Assessment (TDA)
Section 2: Implementation 2.1 Perform basic configuration and setup.
2.2 Configure Network Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
2.3 Ensure an organization’s security requirements will be satisfied by
encryption enablement.
2.4 Externally virtualize storage
2.5 Administer storage pools.
2.6 Administer arrays
2.7 Enable/disable Volume protection mode-by pool
2.8 Administer volumes
2.9 Set up host.
Section 3: Manage and Use IBM Spectrum Virtualize 3.1 Enable Quality of Service (QOS) capabilities.
3.2 Administer the multi-tenancy function
3.3 Enable and monitor Easy Tier
3.4 Integrate with VMware
3.5 Migrate volumes
3.6 Perform code upgrades
3.7 Describe process for node replacement
3.8 Perform Storage management and performance monitoring (Virtual Storage
Center)
3.9 Describe the process for implementing IBM Spectrum Virtualize for Public
Cloud.
Section 4: Copy Services: FlashCopy 4.1 Describe use cases for snapshots, clones, backups including consistency
groups
4.2 Manage snapshots, clones, backups, and consistency groups
4.3 Describe Transparent Cloud Tiering - encryption and compression
Section 5: Copy Services-Replication 5.1 Determine high availability options including stretched cluster,
Hyperswap, spare node
5.2 Calculate bandwidth requirements for replication
5.3 Determine replication connectivity - ip, FCIP, Fibre Channel, compression
5.4 Describe copy services methods and capabilities available for replication
and availability solution options.
5.5 Manage metro-mirror, global mirror, global mirror with change volume
including consistency groups; Sync rates
5.6 Implement disaster recovery to public cloud (IBM Spectrum Virtualize for
Public Cloud)
We have prepared Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration
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QUESTION 1 Scenario: There are two domains in an organization: Domain A and Domain B. A
Citrix Engineer configured
SAML authentication for Domain A, without implementing Citrix Federated
Authentication Service (FAS).
While launching the Citrix apps, the Single Sign-on will __________.
A. work for users from Domain A and NOT for users from Domain B
B. work for users from Domain B and NOT for users from Domain A
C. work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
D. NOT work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a large environment with multiple
locations. The setup is as follows:
- The setup has a single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops site with multiple
zones such as a Primary zone and 3 Satellite zones.
-Virtual Delivery Agents (VDAs) are available for all applications in all 3
Satellite zones.
-An application 'app1' has its application database located in Satellite zone.
-As a sovereign mandate, it is desirable that this application database should
NOT be accessible from zones 2 and 3.
-The application does NOT create any database cache and cannot work if the
database is NOT reachable. -
The outage is acceptable for complying with the sovereign mandate.
Which zone preference should the engineer configure to achieve this setup?
A. Mandatory application home to Satellite zone 1
B. User home to Satellite zone 1
C. Mandatory user home to Satellite zone 1
D. Application home to Satellite zone 1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer noticed that a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
environment lost connection to the
SQL servers where the Citrix databases are running. Due to this, the Site has
become unmanaged and firsttime users CANNOT connect to their Citrix Virtual Apps
& Desktops resources.
The setup was recently upgraded from Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.11 to
Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.15 CU4.
What should the engineer do to minimize the impact of the SQL outage?
A. Enable Connection Leasing.
B. Enable IntelliCache.
C. Enable Local Host Cache.
D. Configure Citrix Database Cache.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A Citrix Engineer wants to enable the "Log Off Web Portal When Session is
Launched" feature within
Workspace Environment Management (WEM) transformer settings.
What does the engineer need to do prior to enabling this feature?
A. Set Workspace control to NOT automatically reconnect to the sessions when
users log onto StoreFront.
B. Set Workspace control settings to log off from session when users log off
from StoreFront.
C. Set Workspace control to automatically reconnect to the sessions when users
log onto StoreFront.
D. Set Workspace control settings to NOT log off a session when users log off
from StoreFront.
The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional exam is intended for
individuals who perform a DevOps engineer role with two or more years of
experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS environments.
Abilities Validated by the Certification Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance
validation
Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the
AWS platform
Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes
Recommended Knowledge and Experience Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
Experience building highly automated infrastructures
Experience administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies
Prepare for Your Exam There is no better preparation than hands-on experience. There are many
relevant AWS Training courses and other resources to assist you with acquiring
additional knowledge and skills to prepare for certification. Please review the
exam guide for information about the competencies assessed on the certification
exam.
Introduction The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional (DOP-CO1) exam validates
technical expertise in provisioning, operating, and managing distributed
application systems on the AWS platform. It is intended for individuals who
perform a DevOps Engineer role.
It validates an examinee’s ability to: Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance
validation
Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the
AWS platform
Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes
Recommended AWS Knowledge Two or more years’ experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS
environments
Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
Experience building highly automated infrastructures
Experience administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies
Exam Preparation These training courses and materials may be helpful for examination
preparation:
AWS Training (aws.amazon.com/training) DevOps Engineering on AWS - https://aws.amazon.com/training/course-descriptions/devops-engineering/
There are two types of questions on the examination: Multiple-choice: Has one correct response option and three incorrect
responses (distractors).
Multiple-response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more
options.
Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the
question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that an
examinee with incomplete knowledge or skill would likely choose. However, they
are generally plausible responses that fit in the content area defined by the
test objective.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing.
Unscored Content Your examination may include unscored items that are placed on the test to
gather statistical information. These items are not identified on the form and
do not affect your score.
Exam Results The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer Professional (DOP-C01) is a pass or fail
exam. The examination is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS
professionals who are guided by certification industry best practices and
guidelines.
Your results for the examination are reported as a score from 100-1000, with a
minimum passing score of 750. Your score shows how you performed on the
examination as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models are
used to equate scores across multiple exam forms that may have slightly
different difficulty levels.
Your score report contains a table of classifications of your performance at
each section level. This information is designed to provide general feedback
concerning your examination performance. The examination uses a compensatory
scoring model, which means that you do not need to “pass” the individual
sections, only the overall examination. Each section of the examination has a
specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than others. The table
contains general information, highlighting your strengths and weaknesses.
Exercise caution when interpreting section-level feedback.
Content Outline This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives only. It
is not a comprehensive listing of the content on this examination. The table
below lists the main content domains and their weightings.
Domain 1: SDLC Automation 22%
Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code 19%
Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging 15%
Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation 10%
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 18%
Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery 16%
1.2 Determine source control strategies and how to implement them
1.3 Apply concepts required to automate and integrate testing
1.4 Apply concepts required to build and manage artifacts securely
1.5 Determine deployment/delivery strategies (e.g., A/B, Blue/green, Canary,
Red/black) and how to implement them using AWS Services
Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code 2.1 Determine deployment services based on deployment needs
2.2 Determine application and infrastructure deployment models based on business
needs
2.3 Apply security concepts in the automation of resource provisioning
2.4 Determine how to implement lifecycle hooks on a deployment
2.5 Apply concepts required to manage systems using AWS configuration management
tools and services
Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging 3.1 Determine how to set up the aggregation, storage, and analysis of logs
and metrics
3.2 Apply concepts required to automate monitoring and event management of an
environment
3.3 Apply concepts required to audit, log, and monitor operating systems,
infrastructures, and applications
3.4 Determine how to implement tagging and other metadata strategies
Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation 4.1 Apply concepts required to enforce standards for logging, metrics,
monitoring, testing, and security
4.2 Determine how to optimize cost through automation
4.3 Apply concepts required to implement governance strategies
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 5.1 Troubleshoot issues and determine how to restore operations
5.2 Determine how to automate event management and alerting
5.3 Apply concepts required to implement automated healing
5.4 Apply concepts required to set up event-driven automated actions
Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery 6.1 Determine appropriate use of multi-AZ versus multi-region architectures
6.2 Determine how to implement high availability, scalability, and fault
tolerance
6.3 Determine the right services based on business needs (e.g., RTO/RPO, cost)
6.4 Determine how to design and automate disaster recovery strategies
6.5 Evaluate a deployment for points of failure
QUESTION: 1 You have an application which consists of EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling
group. Between a
particular time frame every day, there is an increase in traffic to your
website. Hence users are
complaining of a poor response time on the application. You have configured your
Auto Scaling group
to deploy one new EC2 instance when CPU utilization is greater than 60% for 2
consecutive periods of 5 minutes.
What is the least cost-effective way to resolve this problem?
A. Decrease the consecutive number of collection periods
B. Increase the minimum number of instances in the Auto Scaling group
C. Decrease the collection period to ten minutes
D. Decrease the threshold CPU utilization percentage at which to deploy a new
instance
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 You have decided that you need to change the instance type of your
production instances which are
running as part of an AutoScaling group. The entire architecture is deployed
using CloudFormation
Template. You currently have 4 instances in Production. You cannot have any
interruption in service
and need to ensure 2 instances are always running during the update? Which of
the options below
listed can be used for this?
A. AutoScalingRollingUpdate
B. AutoScalingScheduledAction
C. AutoScalingReplacingUpdate
D. AutoScalinglntegrationUpdate
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 You currently have the following setup in AWS
1) An Elastic Load Balancer
2) Auto Scaling Group which launches EC2 Instances
3) AMIs with your code pre-installed
You want to deploy the updates of your app to only a certain number of users.
You want to have a
cost-effective solution. You should also be able to revert back quickly. Which
of the below solutions is the most feasible one?
A. Create a second ELB, and a new Auto Scaling Group assigned a new Launch
Configuration. Create a
new AMI with the updated app. Use Route53 Weighted Round Robin records to adjust
the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs.
B. Create new AM Is with the new app. Then use the new EC2 instances in half
proportion to the older instances.
C. Redeploy with AWS Elastic Beanstalk and Elastic Beanstalk versions. Use Route
53 Weighted Round
Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs
D. Create a full second stack of instances, cut the DNS over to the new stack of
instances, and change the DNS back if a rollback is needed.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 Your application is currently running on Amazon EC2 instances behind a load
balancer. Your
management has decided to use a Blue/Green deployment strategy. How should you
implement this for each deployment?
A. Set up Amazon Route 53 health checks to fail over from any Amazon EC2
instance that is currently being deployed to.
B. Using AWS CloudFormation, create a test stack for validating the code, and
then deploy the code
to each production Amazon EC2 instance.
C. Create a new load balancer with new Amazon EC2 instances, carry out the
deployment, and then
switch DNS over to the new load balancer using Amazon Route 53 after testing.
D. Launch more Amazon EC2 instances to ensure high availability, de-register
each Amazon EC2
instance from the load balancer, upgrade it, and test it, and then register it
again with the load balancer.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 You have an application running a specific process that is critical to the
application's functionality,
and have added the health check process to your Auto Scaling Group. The
instances are showing
healthy but the application itself is not working as it should. What could be
the issue with the health check, since it is still showing the instances as
healthy.
A. You do not have the time range in the health check properly configured
B. It is not possible for a health check to monitor a process that involves the
application
C. The health check is not configured properly
D. The health check is not checking the application process
To earn the CCBA designation, candidates must: Complete a minimum of 3,750 hours of Business Analysis work experience in
the last 7 years.
Within these 3750 minimum hours required, a minimum of 900 hours must be
completed in each of 2 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas OR, a minimum of
500 hours must be completed in each of 4 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas.
Complete a minimum of 21 hours of Professional Development within the last 4
years.
Provide references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CCBA Competencies
Is CCBA for you? The CCBA certificate is for:
Individuals with an ECBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
QUESTION 1 You are currently working on creating the activity list for an initiative in
your organization. What characteristic must be assigned to each task in your
task list?
A. Procurement needs
B. Risk level
C. Unique number
D. Roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Each task in the task list should have a unique number to identify the specific
task and it should have a description of what the task is.
Answer: B is incorrect. The risk level is not associated with the task list.
Answer: D is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are not included directly in
the task list.
Answer: A is incorrect. Procurement needs are not included in the task list.
QUESTION 2 Shelly is the business analyst for her organization and she's working with
Thomas to review the business
requirements. They are discussing the identified requirements, how the
requirements will transition to the
operations, and the longevity of the solution. Thomas is concerned that the
identified requirements may not
map to the desired future state of the organization. What business analysis task
is Shelly facilitating in this scenario?
A. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition
B. Requirements quality assurance
C. Validate requirements
D. Stakeholder management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shelly and Thomas are performing the validate requirements task. This task
helps to ensure that the
requirements map to the business goals and objectives, resolve the issue, and
predict the longevity of the requirements to satisfy business needs.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is not a business analysis task called
requirements quality assurance.
Answer: A is incorrect. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition is a task to
ensure that the requirements are
clear and precise enough to create tests and inspect to know that the work has
been completed.
Answer: D is incorrect. Stakeholder management is the management of
stakeholders' issues, conflicts,
queries, concerns, threats, and perceived threats about the requirements.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following are documented approaches to the business analysis
work? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
A. Deming's Quality Circle
B. Lean
C. Six Sigma
D. Waterfall approach
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The waterfall approach, lean, and Six Sigma are the valid answer for business
analysis approaches.
Answer: A is incorrect. Deming's Quality Circle describes the quality management
approach of plan, do, check, and act. This isn't a business analysis approach.
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with the
stakeholders to prioritize the
requirements. The stakeholders are concerned about the financial impact of the
requirements should some of
them fail during the implementation. You would like to rank the risk tolerance
of the stakeholders based on
their comments about the solution and the requirements. The following are the
three categories of risk
tolerance associated with the stakeholders except for which one?
A. Neutrality
B. Mitigation
C. Risk-seeking
D. Risk-aversion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mitigation is a risk response that seeks to lower the risk's probability
and/or impact. It is not one of the three categories of risk tolerance.
QUESTION 5 Tracy is a business analyst for her organization and she's gathered and
identified the needed requirements for
the solution scope. What must Tracy do before she can begin managing the
requirements? Choose the best answer.
A. Tracy must decompose the requirements in WBS.
B. Tracy must create cost-benefits analysis of each requirement to manage the
benefits first.
C. Tracy must identify roles, responsibilities, and owners of the requirements
to fully manage the requirements.
D. Tracy must communicate the requirements to the stakeholders for their consent
and approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Requirements must be communicated before they are managed. Tracy must
communicate the requirements to
the stakeholders for their consent and approval before managing the
requirements.
Answer: A is incorrect. Before Tracy decomposes the requirements, she should
have the approval of the stakeholders.
Answer: B is incorrect. To begin managing the requirements, Tracy needs the
approval and consent of the stakeholders.
Answer: C is incorrect. This isn't a valid statement, as the best thing to do is
to gain the approval of the stakeholders first. Certkingdom
Review, Certkingdom
IIBA CCBA PDF Best IIBA
CCBACertification, IIBA
CCBA Training at certkingdom.com
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing security automated
solutions, including: Programming concepts
RESTful APIs
Data models
Protocols
Firewalls
Web
DNS
Cloud and email security
ISE
Exam Description The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735)
exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified
DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist - Security Automation
and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of
implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts,
RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email
security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions,
helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git (add, clone, push,
commit, diff, branching, and merging conflict)
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs
synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes,
conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible
and Puppet for automating security platforms
2.1 Describe the event streaming capabilities of Firepower Management Center
eStreamer API
2.2 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
2.2.a Firepower (Firepower Management Center and Firepower Device Management)
2.2.b ISE
2.2.c pxGRID
2.2.d Stealthwatch Enterprise
2.3 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Management Center API
2.4 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Threat Defense API (also known as Firepower Device Manager API)
2.5 Construct a Python script for pxGrid to retrieve information such as
endpoint device type, network policy and security telemetry
2.6 Construct API requests using Stealthwatch API
2.6.a perform configuration modifications
2.6.b generate rich reports
3.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
3.1.a Umbrella Investigate APIs
3.1.b AMP for endpoints APIs
3.1.c ThreatGRID API
3.2 Construct an Umbrella Investigate API request
3.3 Construct AMP for endpoints API requests for event, computer, and policies
3.4 Construct ThreatGRID APIs request for search, sample feeds, IoC feeds, and
threat disposition
4.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
4.1.a Umbrella reporting and enforcement APIs
4.1.b Stealthwatch cloud APIs
4.1.c Cisco Security Management Appliance APIs
4.2 Construct Stealthwatch cloud API request for reporting
4.3 Construct an Umbrella Reporting and Enforcement API request
4.4 Construct a report using Cisco Security Management Appliance API request
(email and web)
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is typically used to manage a Cisco router in-band?
(Select the best answer.)
A. a VTY port
B. a serial port
C. a console port
D. an auxiliary port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following enables the validation of both user and device
credentials in a single EAP transaction? (Select the best answer.)
A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-FAST with EAP chaining
D. EAP-MD5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following features protects the control plane by classifying
traffic into three separate control plane subinterfaces? (Select the best
answer.)
A. CoPP
B. CPPr
C. RBAC
D. uRPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is an outputspreading technique that spammers use to
manipulate reputation scores and defeat filters? (Select the best answer.)
A. phishing
B. snowshoe spam
C. waterfalling
D. listwashing
Course Description The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the most widely accepted approach to
IT service management in the world. ITIL is a best practice framework that has
been drawn from both the public and private sectors internationally. It
describes how IT resources should be organized to deliver business value,
documenting the processes, functions and roles of IT Service Management (ITSM).
The focus of a business should move from simply managing the company’s IT to
making IT truly productive by helping the business achieve its strategic goals.
ITIL certification helps organizations fulfill this goal by providing guidelines
for establishing governance standards and enhancing the alignment between
business and its IT processes.
Audience: ITIL certification is most suited for IT Managers, System Analysts,
Quality Analysts, System Administrators, Operations Managers, and Database
Administrators.
Course Objectives Understand and implement IT Service Management best practices, key concepts,
principles, and process models required for clearing the ITIL Foundation
certification exam
Gain understanding of scope, purpose, and objective of, service strategy,
service transition, service design, service operations, and Continual Service
Improvement
Apply ITIL concepts, tools and techniques to improve effectiveness and
efficiency of business for optimizing customer experience
Learn to automate standard tasks and apply lean principles to enhance efficiency
of IT Service Management processes in this ITIL 2011 foundation training
Centralize processes and teams and save costs using well defined fit-for-use and
fit-for purpose processes
ITIL Foundation course provides participants a complete structure with a set of
procedures to help them take a proactive approach in improving business
performance with the help of IT.
ITIL Foundation Definition: ITIL Foundation is a certification based on ITIL practices for IT Service
Management. The Foundation certification aims to give professionals an
understanding of the guidelines and framework.
Context: Overview ITIL Foundation is designed to give professionals a basic understanding of
the ITIL framework. It focuses on awareness and comprehension rather than being
able to apply ITIL principles. The basics of IT Service Management as a practice
are covered as is the ITIL lifecycle.
Topics Some of the topics covered in ITIL Foundation include:
IT Service Management as a practice
ITIL Service Cycle
Technology and architecture
Competence and training
The certification also covers processes, models, functions, and roles. The
learning objectives focus on knowing and understanding key terms and
definitions.
To become certified for ITIL Foundation, a professional needs to sit the ITIL
Foundation exam which consists of 40 multiple choice questions. A certificate is
awarded when the professional correctly answers 65% of the questions. The exam
can be done as a conclusion to classroom training or it can be prepared for
through self-study.
Related Certifications: There are many ways to further extend your contextual knowledge of IT
Service Management to broaden your understanding. One of these ways is to build
on your ITIL knowledge with a VeriSM™ certification. The VeriSM™ Plus module
offers professionals knowledge of new and emerging technologies. This
certification ensures that professionals have a grasp of the progessive
practices and innovative technologies that are now emerging rapidly as a
consequence of digital transformation.
QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and
tools when improving services?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed?
A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a
standard change?
A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?
A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change
quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure
they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and
implementation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication
of service requests and incidents?
A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management
2019 Exam Details
The Professional VMware vRealize Automation 7.6 Exam (2V0-31.19), which leads to
the VMware Certified Professional – Cloud Management and Automation 2020
certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled
method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 120 minutes, which includes
a five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native
English speakers. Actual exam time is 115 minutes. Exam Delivery This is a
proctored exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers, world-wide. For more
information, visit the Pearson VUE website. Certification Information For
details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for
certification attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services –
Certification website. Minimally Qualified Candidate The minimally qualified
candidate (MQC) has experience working with vRealize Automation 7.6
implementations. The candidate has some foundational knowledge of both versions
of NSX (NSX Data Center for vSphere and NSX-T) and intermediate knowledge of
vSphere. He or she is typically infrastructure personnel capable of installing
and configuring, testing, managing and troubleshooting a vRealize Automation 7.6
solution running on vSphere 6.x. The candidate possesses an understanding of
basic cloud concepts including public/private/hybrid clouds, multitenancy and
cloud security. The candidate is capable of using vRealize Automation to
automate the deployment of workloads, vRealize Business for Cloud Standard to
establish cost reporting and vRealize Orchestrator to create and manage common
workflows. The candidate has foundational knowledge of how to maintain and
update vRealize Automation thorough vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager. Exam
Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven
sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint
depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
If a section is missing from the list below, please note it is because the exam
has no testable objectives for that section. The objective numbering may be
referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further
preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.
Sections Included in the Exam
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies - There are no testable objectives
for this section
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions - There are no testable objectives for
this section
Section 3- Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this
section
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup - There are no testable
objectives for this section
Objective 4.1 - Install vRealize Automation
Objective 4.2 - Create and Manage Tenants
Objective 4.3 - Create and Manage Directories
Objective 4.4 - Create and Manage Business Groups
Objective 4.5 - Manage User and Group Role Assignments
Objective 4.6 - Integrate vRealize Business for Cloud Standard with vRealize
Automation
Objective 4.7 - Create and Manage VMware Endpoints
Objective 4.8 - Create and Manage Cloud Endpoints
Objective 4.9 - Create and Manage Fabric Groups, Reservations and Network
Profiles
Objective 4.10 - Create, Configure and Manage Active Directory Policies
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades
Objective 5.1 - Maintain and Update vRealize Automation using vRealize Lifecycle
Manager
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Troubleshoot Common vRealize Automation Installation and
Configuration Errors
Objective 6.2 - Identify the Correct Log to Troubleshoot a Given vRealize
Automation Error
Objective 6.3 - Configure the Health Check Feature on vRealize Automation
Objective 6.4 - Troubleshoot Provisioning Errors
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Create, Modify and Publish single- and multi-machine Blueprints
Based on a Given Design
Objective 7.2 - Create and Manage XaaS Blueprints with Custom Resource Mappings
Objective 7.3 - Create and Manage Custom Forms for a Blueprint
Objective 7.4 - Use Software Components in Blueprints
Objective 7.5 - Export and Import Blueprints
Objective 7.6 - Create and Manage NSX Objects in a Blueprint
Objective 7.7 - Configure a Blueprint to Deploy from OVF
Objective 7.8 - Create and Manage Entitlements
Objective 7.9 - Create and Manage Approval Policies
Objective 7.10 - Manage the vRealize Automation Catalog
Objective 7.11 - Provision Resources from a vRealize Automation Catalog
Objective 7.12 - Perform Locate and Reclamation of Resources Based on Provided
Criteria
Objective 7.13 - Manage Provisioned Workloads (Day 2 Actions)
Objective 7.14 - Perform Bulk Imports
Objective 7.15 - Create and Manage Event Broker Subscriptions
Objective 7.16 - Install and Configure Plugins and Packages in vRealize
Orchestrator
Objective 7.17 - Modify and Run Basic vRealize Orchestrator Workflows
Objective 7.18 - Configure Authentication for vRealize Orchestrator
Objective 7.19 - Maintain and Renew Certificates
QUESTION 1
A new Windows operating system machine blueprint is created and is ready to be
added to a new service catalog.
Which step must be performed for the catalog item to be visible to business
users?
A. Entitle the blueprint with all appropriate actions.
B. Publish the blueprint.
C. Entitle a business user to add the blueprint to the catalog.
D. Add the catalog item to the business group’s reservation.
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A vRealize Orchestrator administrator is tasked with creating a workflow
that processes sensitive information
that is subject to auditing. All workflow messages must be stored in the
vRealize Orchestrator database.
How can the administrator ensure that all log messages generated by the workflow
are stored in the database?
A. Configure a DEBUG level for the vRealize Orchestrator server.
B. Use System.log() when printing out messages.
C. Configure SQL plugin to write to the database directly.
D. Use Server.log() when printing out messages.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A system administrator created a tenant with URL name “fin” for the finance
team. The fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the appliance is
vra.rainpole.local.
What is the correct URL to log in to the finance tenant?
A. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/fin
B. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/finance
C. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/fin
D. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/finance
Answer: D
QUESTION 4 What can be used in custom forms to prevent a user from entering too large a
value (such as too much memory for a virtual machine)?
A. Constraints for a field
B. Regular expression for a field
C. Quotas for a field
D. Limitations for a field
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 An administrator configures a pre-approval event subscription to run
vRealize Orchestrator workflow. The
workflow does not run when a machine that matches the defined criteria is
requested in the service catalog.
What can the administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. Verify that approvers have executed the approve option.
B. Verify that the workflow subscription is published.
C. Verify that approvers belong to specific users and groups.
D. Verify that the approval policy is associated with the correct resource
action.
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – HR Exam Specification
defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test
framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation Specialist – HR
certified.
Exam Purpose The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam certifies that a
successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the
configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow Human Resources
suite of applications.
Exam Audience The Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam is available to ServiceNow
customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow
Certified Implementer for the ServiceNow HR application.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path: Human Resources Service Delivery (HRSD)
Implementer
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam.
Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain
source material for the exam.
• Human Resources (HR) Fundamentals
• Human Resources (HR) Implementation - Upon completion, the candidate will be
issued a nontransferable voucher code to register for the Certified
Implementation Specialist – HR exam
Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow also recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
o Micro-certification – ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model
• Working with Restricted Caller Access Records for Human Resources
Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional
resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• General familiarity with general industry terminology, acronyms, and
initialisms
• Practical knowledge about Human Resources processes and some knowledge of IT
Service Request workflows is also helpful
• Three to six months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment
projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least one ServiceNow HR deployment project
Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and
activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills
measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each
domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of
exam content.
Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Describe and use the ServiceNow HR System
Architecture 37%
Plugins
HR Table Structure
Application Scoping
2 Configure and Implement ServiceNow Core HR Applications and Employee Service
Center 40%
Users, Groups, Skills, and Roles
Assignment Rules
HR Services, HR Catalog Items, and Record Producers
HR Service Portal Branding
Describe and Use Platform, Role, and Contextual Security
16% Describe how Platform, Role, and Contextual Security are Used in ServiceNow
Understand how the Delegated Developer role works
Understand how to Configure Security Options to Protect HR Data
Total
100%
Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website
using a voucher obtained by completing the Human Resources (HR) Implementation
training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the prerequisite training
path is nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the
Certified Implementation Specialist – HR exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately 45 questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately
calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not
provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again
up to three more times for a cost of $75.
QUESTION 1
An HR Admin without the System Admin role can do what? (Choose three.)
A. Grant roles to users or groups
B. Modify the HR Administration > Properties
C. Reset user passwords
D. Create HR Criteria
E. Configure business rules
F. Add users to groups
Correct Answer: A,C,F
QUESTION 2 After the HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin] role has been removed from the Admin
role, how may a user with only the Admin role add members to HR groups?
A. The Admin must elevate their role to security_admin to add members to HR
groups.
B. The Admin follows the same process as with any group membership change.
C. The Admin can no longer add members to HR groups.
D. The Admin must impersonate an HR Admin to add members to HR groups.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 In the Create Bulk Cases module, which Filter by options are available in
the dropdown? (Choose four.)
A. Document Template
B. Upload File
C. HR Service Template
D. User Criteria
E. HR Template
F. HR Profiles
G. HR Criteria
Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to understand Microsoft Dynamics 365; artificial
intelligence (AI); mixed reality (MR); the Power Platform; cloud concepts; cloud
security; role-based security in Dynamics 365; Common Data Service; data
management framework; Dynamics 365 reporting; Dynamics 365 integrations; and
cloud deployment.
This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365. Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365
capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working
experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also
have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing
business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.
Audience Profile This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities
and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working
experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also
have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing
business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%) Describe integration capabilities
• integration across Dynamics 365 apps
• integration across Microsoft products
• integration with third-party apps
• custom integrations in Dynamics 365
Describe Dynamics 365 cloud security • encryption
• authentication
• data ownership
• data center access
• SSO
• Data loss protection (DLP)
• industry standard certifications (GDPR, etc)
Understand the benefits of role based security • app role-based security
• leveraging security roles
• streamlined user experience
• out-of-the-box security roles
Identify the business value of the Microsoft cloud • Azure features used by Dynamics 365
• PaaS
• Life Cycle Services (LCS)
Understand the use of Power Platform in Dynamics 365 • Power Apps
• Power BI
• Power Automate
• AI Builder
• Common Data Service
Understand the benefits of the Common Data Service • analytics
• extensibility
• interoperability
• consistency
Identify Dynamics 365 reporting capabilities • built in reporting
• role-based reporting
• extensible reporting
Understand AI and Mixed Reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%) Leverage AI for data insights
• fraud protection
• virtual agents
• sales insights
• customer insights
• relationship insights
• customer service insights
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales
• dynamics 365 sales automation
• pipeline management
• contact management
• customer requests and follow up
• LinkedIn Sales Navigator
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Marketing • lead generation and qualifications
• customer journey
• surveys
• landing pages
• segmentation
• event management
• dynamics 365 for marketing
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Field Service • Resource Scheduling Optimization (RSO)
• Connected Field Service
• service resource scheduling
• proactive customer service
• Field Service Mobile
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Service • account management
• omni channel service
• case life cycle
• knowledge articles
Understand Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance • General Ledger
• Accounts Payable
• Accounts Receivable
• project accounting
• budgeting
• global attributes
• end to end business processes
• real time cash flow visibility
• enterprise asset management
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Human Resources • employee self-service
• personnel management
• benefits management
• employee development
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Business Central • finance
• supply chain
• project management
• sales and service
• budgeting
• when to use Business Central vs other Dynamics 365 products
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management • project accounting
• modernize operations
• procurement and sourcing
• manufacturing
• warehouse management
• master planning
• product information
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Commerce • retail capability
• Channel Management
• Point of Sale (POS)
• mobile commerce
QUESTION 1 You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the
cloud.
You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?
A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created
in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts
Correct Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION 3 A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a
customized app that allows
sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops,
tablets, and mobile
devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?
